APLN - BLOOD BANKING

The interval between blood donations is:

The oral temperature of a donor shall not:

The minimum acceptable hemoglobin for male donors is:

What is the lowest acceptable hematocrit for female blood donors?

Prospective donors who have malaria should be deferred:

The name given to the infectious virus of hepatitis B (HBV) is:

Symptom-free donors immunized with oral polio, measles(rubeola), or mumps vaccines are acceptable after a period of:

For autologous blood donation, blood should not be drawn from the donor patient within ____ hours of the time of the anticipated operation or transfusion.

An autologous blood donor must:

Which of the following pretransfusion tests "must" be determined for an autologous transfusion recipient?

Which biochemical change does NOT occur in stored blood?

Which of the following organism have been implicated in bacterial contamination of donor blood?

The acceptable temperature range for a blood bank refrigerator is:

Fresh frozen plasma that is store at 18C or lower has a shelf life of _____.

When a blood product is stored at 1-6C and the hermetic seal has been broken, the expiration date becomes:

The optimum temperature for thawing fresh frozen plasma is:

According to FDA regulations, if blood is to be transported, the blood temperature must be kept between:

Which blood group system was discovered first?

An amorph is gene:

Production of more antigen in the homozygous state than in the heterozygous state is referred to as:

Unexpected antibodies that react at 37C are:

Naturally occurring antibodies are found regularly in which system?

Select the INCORRECT statement below. Naturally occurring antibodies;

Immune antibodies may be produced by:

Anti-A1 is a seed extract from:

The frequency of Group A individuals in the United States is:

Group B individuals have:

Red blood cells of which blood group will not be agglutinated by anti-A,B typing serum?

Red blood cells of which of blood group react most strongly with anti-H?

The reagent made from the seeds of Dolichos biflorus is:

The antigen most commonly tested for in the Rh system is:

Which of the following is true of D^u?

Which is not true of Du antigen?

Anti-C will not react with:

Anti-E will react with:

Anti-c can be formed by persons with the genotype:

Anti-hr will NOT react with:

Anti-hr will react with:

The f antigen refers to:

The symbol for the Bombay blood group is:

All but one of the following antibodies will be detected in the serum of Bombay genotype:

The system composed of antigens found primarily in saliva and plasma is:

In the Duffy blood group system, the most common antibody detected is:

Which of the following is usually IgG, immune, and antiglobulin (Coombs') reactive?

The antigen I is:

Anti-I is most commonly detected in which crossmatch phase?

Select the incorrect statement:

Which of the following is NOT TRUE of anti-Le^a

What percentage of the population lacks the Kell (K) antigen?

Select the INCORRECT statement:

Anti - K is also known as

Approximately what percentage of blacks have the Fy (a-b) phenotype?

Recent findings suggest there is an association between the Fy (a- b-) phenotype and resistance to:

The antigen Tj^a is part of which system?

Approximately what percentage of males are Xga positve?

Approximately what percentage of females are Xg^a positive?

What color-coding is used for donor blood labels, group A is:

What is the standard acceptable color for anti-A grouping serum?

Polyspecific antiglobulin serum is sometimes colored:

What is the color of the dye added to commercially prepared anti-B blood grouping serum?

Anti-A,B serum:

Which of the following is NOT a suitable medium for suspensions of red cells for blood banking?

Which of the following enzymes is NOT used in blood bank procedures?

Enzymes prevent detection of antibodies in the:

The technique used to remove antibody bound to sensitized red cells is called:

A cold autoagglutinin will usually have specificity for the:

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is often associated with antibodies in which system?

Forward grouping is using:

Reverse grouping difficulties may be encountered in the following instances:

A patient that forward groups as group B probably is a group A2 B with

The most dangerous and unexpected antibodies in the blood bank are those that react at:

Antiglobulin reagent:

Which of the following drugs will NOT cause a positive direct antiglobulin (Coombs') test?

What is the optimum incubation temperature for the indirect antiglobulin (IAT) test?

The direct antiglobulin test (DAT) using polyspecific antihuman globulin serum is NOT of value in the:

Albumin-reactive IgG antibodies are about _______ in length:

By common usage, a polyspecific anti-human serum at least contains antibodies to:

The direct antiglobulin test is most useful for:

In a direct antiglobulin test, you are testing patient:

An indirect antiglobulin test is incubated for:

The red blood cells used for screening patients' serum for unexpected antibodies should be of what group?

A false positive antiglobulin test can be caused by:

A false negative indirect antiglobulin test can be caused by:

Laboratories must check each negative antiglobulin test using red blood cells sensitized with IgG. After the addition of these cells, which of the following is NOT necessarily true?

Fresh serum (less than 48 hours old must be used for compatibility testing to preserve:

Mixed field agglutination is observed under the microscope as clumps or agglutinates of cells among many free cells. Which of the following is the MOST COMMON REASON for mixed field agglutination?

The term "type and screen" refers to:

All but one of the following antibodies will usually be detected in the room temperature phase of crossmatch:

A positive antigen-antibody reaction is indicated by:

Which of the following antibodies usually gives negative reactions in enzyme test procedures?

One of the eight units crossmatched is incompatible in the antiglobulin phase of testing. The most likely antibody is:

If a recepient is incompatible with only one donor, the most probable cause is:

Hemolysis requires complement activation. Which of the following are required for complement activation?

The initial response to a foreign antigen is known as the "primary response". His primary response usually takes how long to occur?

Secondary response to the same foreign antigen is known as:

Platelet concentrates are most likely to be of benefit in:

Cyroprecipitated antihemophilic factor (AHF) is not recommended for the treatment of:

Red blood cells are the product of choice for:

Deglycerolized frozen red blood cells must be transferred within how many hours?

Recurrent nonhemolytic febrile transfusion reactions are usually caused by all of the following except:

A patient is suspected of having a transfusion reaction. When should the transfusion be stopped?

A transfusion reaction is considered febrile when the patient experiences a:

The blood phenotype O can result from which of the following genotypes?

The cells and serum of a neonate were tested at room temperature: Patient cells with: Anti-A - negative Anti-B - Positive

       Patient serum with:
                 A1 cells - negative
                 Anti - B - positive

             The infant is probably:

Patient cells with: Anti-A - positive Anti-B - positive Anti-AB - positive Anti-A1 - negative

Patient serum with: A1 cells - positive B cells - negative

Give the most likely explanation for the discrepancy in the forward and reverse groupings:

What is the optimum concentration of a cell suspension to be used in blood banking testing?

The Weiner genotype R2 R2 is equivalent to:

What is the most common genotype that could result from the phenotype D,C,E,c,a?

Given the reactions, D+C+E+, c+, e+, what is the most probable genotype?

Given the reactions, D, C, E , ce+, ce+, what is the most

If cells are positive when tested with anti-D, anti-C, and anti-e, and negative when tested with Anti-E and anti-c, what is the most likely genotype?

If red cells give positive reactions when tested with anti-Rho, anti-rh', anti-hr', and a negative reaction with anti-rh", which of the following genotypes is IMPOSSIBLE?

113 Deleted answer a

What is the most common of the Rh negative genotypes?

When red cells are positive when tested with anti-c and anti-e and negative when tested with anti-D anti-C and anti-E, what is the genotype?

D^u antigen are fairly common to what race?

The D antigen is responsible for the most frequent production of unexpected antibodies. Which other blood group antigen is responsible for a large percentage of unexpected antibody production?

Hemolytic disease of the newborn can occur when:

Which antibody is most likely to be involved in hemolytic disease of the newborn?

When severe hemolytic disease of the newborn is due to an unidentified antibody:

The following blood groups, which one does not usually cause hemolytic disease of the newborn?

In a case of hemolytic disease of the newborn, when the mother is group O and the baby is group A, red cells for exchange transfusion should be what group?

In cases of ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn, the mother is usually which of the following?

If a mother passes an antibody to her fetus through the placenta, what type of immunity does the fetus have?

If the mother is group A1B and the father is group A2B, which would be IMPOSSIBLE in the offspring?

In the phenotype mating A2B x 0, which of the following phenotype is possible in the offspring?

In the phenotype mating O x O, which of the following phenotypes is possible in the offspring?

An A1B mother and an A2O father could NOT produce which of the following genotypes?

If the mother is group O and the infant is group B, the infant's blood group genotype is:

Given a mother of group O and an infant of group B, which of the following blood groups would eliminate paternity?

If a group AB is mated with a group O, the following genotypes will result:

In the mating of R1r x R2r genotypes, which of the following is probably NOT that of the offspring?

If an R2R2 patient is transfused with R1R1 blood, it would be possible for him to form which of the following antibodies?

If a patient requiring a blood transfusion has an anti-e(hr") approximately what percent of donor blood tested would be compatible?

Approximately what percentage of donor blood is compatible with a patient who has anti-Jka?

You must find two units of compatible blood for a patient who has anti-Jka. How many units will you crossmatch?

When a patient is to undergo heart bypass surgery, which antibody is considered clinically significant?

Which blood grouping antibodies can be the cause of a severe delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction?

In titration of an antibody, the first 2-3 tubes are negative and later tubes are positive. This is known as:

Intravascular hemolysis occur when:

What is the optimum pH at which antibodies bind to cells?

A blood bank has 10 units of O Rho (D) positive blood from random donors. It should be easiest to find two units of compatible blood for the patient with:

If the patient with anti-E needs a blood transfusion, approximately what percentage of donor blood tested will be compatible?

A patient needing a blood transfusion is found to have anti-P1. According to the statistics, select the appropriate number of compatible units

A 56C water bath is commonly used for: 1. Crossmatching 2. Preparing eluates 3. Inactivating sera 4. Thawing frozen cells

Testing media for antigen-antibody reactions include: I. Isotonic saline II. LISS III. Albumin IV. Enzymes

Anti-A1 agglutinin is:
I. Found in group A1 patients II. Occasionally found in A2 patients III. Found in all A2B patients IV. Found in group B and O patients

Standardize techniques for blood banking procedures by:

Anti-AB serum: I. Is obtained from A1B individuals II. Is obtained from A2B individuals III. Is obtained from group O individuals IV. Confirms group O individuals

Rh antibodies: I. React more strongly at 37C than at 4C II. Frequently noted to be cold agglutinins III. Acquired from transfusion of pregnancy IV. Confirms group O individuals

Which of the following are naturally occurring? I. Anti-P1 II. Anti-Lea III. Anti-N IV. Anti-S

The group B phenotype can result from the following genotype/s? I. A1B II. BB III. AO IV. BO

The phenotype A can result from which of the following genotypes?

In the very acute phase of hepatitis, which of the following would be indicative of the onset of a viremic state?

What is the expiration date (in days) of red blood cells preserved with citrate-phosphate-dextrose-adenine (CPDA-1)?

Low ionic strength solution (LISS): I. Causes an increase in the electropositive cations surrounding the red cells II. causes a decrease in the electropositive cations surrounding the
red cells III. usually consists of phosphate saline and glycine IV. enhances the rate and sensitivity of antigen-antibody reactions