Podcast
Questions and Answers
What is the benefit of an operating system (OS) feature that is designed to prevent an application from executing code from a non-executable memory region?
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What Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) response header can be used to disable the execution of inline JavaScript and the execution of eval()-type functions?
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Which section of the assessment report addresses separate vulnerabilities, weaknesses, and gaps?
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In a quarterly system access review, an active privileged account was discovered that did not exist in the prior review on the production system. The account was created one hour after the previous access review. Which of the following is the BEST option to reduce overall risk in addition to quarterly access reviews?
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When recovering from an outage, what is the Recovery Point Objective (RPO), in terms of data recovery?
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The security operations center (SOC) has received credible intelligence that a threat actor is planning to attack with multiple variants of a destructive virus. After obtaining a sample set of this virus' variants and reverse engineering them to understand how they work, a commonality was found. All variants are coded to write to a specific memory location. It is determined this virus is of no threat to the organization because they had the foresight to enable what feature on all endpoints?
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An information technology (IT) employee who travels frequently to various countries remotely connects to an organization's resources to troubleshoot problems. Which of the following solutions BEST serves as a secure control mechanism to meet the organization's requirements?
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What is the term used to define where data is geographically stored in the cloud?
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Assuming an individual has taken all of the steps to keep their internet connection private, which of the following is the BEST to browse the web privately?
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Which of the following types of firewall only examines the "handshaking" between packets before forwarding traffic?
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The security team plans on using automated account reconciliation in the corporate user access review process. Which of the following must be implemented for the BEST results with fewest errors when running the audit?
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Which of the following is included in change management?
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Which of the following technologies can be used to monitor and dynamically respond to potential threats on web applications?
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Before allowing a web application into the production environment, the security practitioner performs multiple types of tests to confirm that the web application performs as expected. To test the username field, the security practitioner creates a test that enters more characters into the field than is allowed. Which of the following BEST describes the type of test performed?
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When developing an organization's information security budget, it is important that the
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A digitally-signed e-mail was delivered over a wireless network protected with Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) protocol. Which of the following principles is at risk?
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When determining data and information asset handling, regardless of the specific toolset being used, which of the following is one of the common components of big data?
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In a DevOps environment, which of the following actions is MOST necessary to have confidence in the quality of the changes being made?
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Which of the following is TRUE for an organization that is using a third-party federated identity service?
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Computer forensics requires which of the following MAIN steps?
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Which of the following is the MAIN benefit of off-site storage?
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Which type of disaster recovery plan (DRP) testing carries the MOST operational risk?
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If an employee transfers from one role to another, which of the following actions should this trigger within the identity and access management (IAM) lifecycle?
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What is the PRIMARY objective of business continuity planning?
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What Is a risk of using commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) products?
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Which of the following is the FIRST step an organization's security professional performs when defining a cyber-security program based upon industry standards?
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What are the PRIMARY responsibilities of security operations for handling and reporting violations and incidents?
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An internal audit for an organization recently identified malicious actions by a user account. Upon further investigation, it was determined the offending user account was used by multiple people at multiple locations simultaneously for various services and applications. What is the BEST method to prevent this problem in the future?
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Which of the following are all elements of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?
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Which of the following BEST ensures the integrity of transactions to intended recipients?
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A breach investigation found a website was exploited through an open source component. What is the FIRST step in the process that could have prevented this breach?
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Which of the following statements is TRUE about Secure Shell (SSH)?
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What type of database attack would allow a customer service employee to determine quarterly sales results before they are publicaly announced?
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Which of the following frameworks provides vulnerability metrics and characteristics to support the National Vulnerability Database (NVD)?
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Which of the following would be the BEST mitigation practice for man-in-the-middle (MITM) Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) attacks?
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Which of the following should be included in a good defense-in-depth strategy provided by objectoriented programming for software deployment?
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Which of the following documents specifies services from the client's viewpoint?
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An organization is planning to have an it audit of its as a Service (SaaS) application to demonstrate to external parties that the security controls around availability are designed. The audit report must also cover a certain period of time to show the operational effectiveness of the controls. Which Service Organization Control (SOC) report would BEST fit their needs?
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Which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) layer(s) BEST corresponds to the network access layer in the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) model?
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An organization is considering partnering with a third-party supplier of cloud services. The organization will only be providing the data and the third-party supplier will be providing the security controls. Which of the following BEST describes this service offering?
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Which security audit standard provides the BEST way for an organization to understand a vendor's Information Systems (IS) in relation to confidentiality, integrity, and availability?
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Which of the following is the MOST appropriate technique for destroying magnetic platter style hard disk drives (HDD) containing data with a "HIGH" security categorization?
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employee training, risk management, and data handling procedures and policies could be characterized as which type of security measure?
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The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of an organization has requested that a Service Organization Control (SOC) report be created to outline the security and availability of a particular system over a 12-month period. Which type of SOC report should be utilized?
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A security practitioner needs to implementation solution to verify endpoint security protections and operating system (0S) versions. Which of the following is the BEST solution to implement?
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A new employee formally reported suspicious behavior to the organization security team. The report claims that someone not affiliated with the organization was inquiring about the member's work location, length of employment, and building access controls. The employee's reporting is MOST likely the result of which of the following?
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The MAIN purpose of placing a tamper seal on a computer system's case is to:
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An organization is preparing to achieve General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) compliance. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is reviewing data protection methods. Which of the following is the BEST data protection method?
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Which of the following describes the order in which a digital forensic process is usually conducted?
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Compared to a traditional network, which of the following is a security-related benefit that software defined networking (SDN) provides?
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Which of the following are mandatory canons for the (ISC)* Code of Ethics?
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Which of the following is the MOST significant key management problem due to the number of keys created?
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When conducting a third-party risk assessment of a new supplier, which of the following reports should be reviewed to confirm the operating effectiveness of the security, availability, confidentiality, and privacy trust principles?
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Which of the following is the BEST method a security practitioner can use to ensure that systems and sub-system gracefully handle invalid input?
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Which of the following determines how traffic should flow based on the status of the infrastructure true?
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Which of the (ISC)? Code of Ethics canons is MOST reflected when preserving the value of systems, applications, and entrusted information while avoiding conflicts of interest?
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The security organization is loading for a solution that could help them determine with a strong level of confident that attackers have breached their network. Which solution is MOST effective at discovering successful network breach?
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Which of the following techniques evaluates the secure design principles of network OF software architectures?
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When designing a business continuity plan (BCP), what is the formula to determine the Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)?
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A company wants to implement two-factor authentication (2FA) to protect their computers from unauthorized users. Which solution provides the MOST secure means of authentication and meets the criteria they have set?
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Which of the following is the MOST important first step in preparing for a security audit?
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An attacker is able to remain indefinitely logged into a exploiting to remain on the web service?
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Which of the following attack types can be used to compromise the integrity of data during transmission?
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A recent information security risk assessment identified weak system access controls on mobile devices as a high me In order to address this risk and ensure only authorized staff access company information, which of the following should the organization implement?
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Which of the following addresses requirements of security assessment during software acquisition?
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Which of the following MUST the administrator of a security information and event management (SIEM) system ensure?
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Which of the following terms BEST describes a system which allows a user to log in and access multiple related servers and applications?
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After the INITIAL input o f a user identification (ID) and password, what is an authentication system that prompts the user for a different response each time the user logs on?
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What is the P R IM A R Y reason criminal law is difficult to enforce when dealing with cyber-crime?
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Which of the following are the B EST characteristics of security metrics?
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At which phase of the software assurance life cycle should risks associated with software acquisition strategies be identified?
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Which of the following would be considered an incident if reported by a security information and event management (SIEM) system?
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a large organization uses biometrics to allow access to its facilities. It adjusts the biometric value for incorrectly granting or denying access so that the two numbers are the same. What is this value called?
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Spyware is BEST described as
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If traveling abroad and a customs official demands to examine a personal computer, which of the following should be assumed?
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What are the first two components of logical access control?
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What is the MAIN purpose of a security assessment plan?
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What is the MAIN purpose of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)?
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Which of the following is the FIRST requirement a data owner should consider before implementing a data retention policy?
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Information Security Continuous Monitoring (1SCM) is defined as maintaining ongoing awareness of information security, vulnerabilities, and threats to support organizational risk management decisions. Which of the following is the FIRST step in developing an ISCM strategy and implementing an ISCM program?
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When designing a Cyber-Physical System (CPS), which of the following should be a security practitioner's first consideration?
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Which of the following BEST describes the use of network architecture in reducing corporate risks associated with mobile devices?
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Which of the following is an important design feature for the outer door o f a mantrap?
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In setting expectations when reviewing the results of a security test, which of the following statements is MOST important to convey to reviewers?
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What is the overall goal of software security testing?
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Which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding information assets?
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An information security professional is reviewing user access controls on a customer-facing application. The application must have multi-factor authentication (MFA) in place. The application currently requires a username and password to login. Which of the following options would BEST implement MFA?
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Study Notes
Operating System Security Feature
- Prevents applications from accessing and executing code from non-executable memory regions, enhancing security by limiting malicious code execution.
HTTP Response Header to Disable JavaScript Execution
- Content-Security-Policy header can be used to disable both inline JavaScript execution and the execution of eval()-type functions, restricting potentially harmful code execution.
Assessment Report Section for Vulnerabilities
- The Vulnerabilities, Weaknesses, and Gaps section of the assessment report focuses on individual vulnerabilities, weaknesses, and potential points of compromise within the system.
Privileged Account Discovery in Access Review
- Implement continuous monitoring of privileged accounts to detect unauthorized creation or changes, going beyond quarterly reviews to actively monitor for suspicious activity.
Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
- Identifies the maximum acceptable data loss during an outage, representing the amount of data that can be lost before impacting business operations.
Endpoint Security Feature for Virus Protection
- Enabling Data Execution Prevention (DEP) on all endpoints prevents malicious code from executing in memory locations, effectively mitigating the threat of destructive viruses targeting specific memory locations.
Secure Control Mechanism for Remote IT Employee
- Implement a Virtual Private Network (VPN) to establish a secure and encrypted connection between the IT employee's device and the organization's resources, regardless of their location.
Geographic Data Storage Term in the Cloud
- Data Sovereignty refers to the geographic location where data is stored within the cloud infrastructure, impacting legal and regulatory compliance.
Private Web Browsing
- Utilizing a Tor browser provides the best level of privacy while browsing the web, as it encrypts traffic and routes it through multiple servers to mask the user's identity and location.
Firewall Type Examining "Handshaking"
- A stateful firewall examines the initial connection establishment (handshaking) between packets before forwarding traffic, enhancing security by analyzing communication patterns.
Implementing Automated Account Reconciliation
- Up-to-date user profiles with accurate roles and permissions are essential for automated account reconciliation to function with minimal errors and maximum effectiveness.
Change Management Components
- Change management includes the processes, procedures, and documentation for evaluating, approving, and implementing changes to IT systems, ensuring stability and security.
Web Application Threat Monitoring and Response Technology
- Web Application Firewalls (WAFs) monitor and proactively respond to potential threats targeting web applications by filtering malicious traffic and blocking attacks.
Web Application Test Type: Username Field Character Limit
- Fuzzing tests are used to identify vulnerabilities by providing unexpected or invalid inputs, such as exceeding the character limit in a field, to highlight potential weaknesses.
Developing an Information Security Budget
- The information security budget should be aligned with the organization's overall risk appetite, security strategy, and compliance requirements to ensure adequate investment in security controls and initiatives.
Security Principle at Risk with WEP and Digital Signatures
- Confidentiality, the protection of sensitive information from unauthorized access, is at risk due to the inherent weaknesses of the Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) protocol and its susceptibility to attacks, potentially compromising the authenticity and integrity of digitally-signed emails sent over a network protected by WEP.
Common Big Data Component
- Variety refers to the diverse range of data sources and formats, encompassing both structured and unstructured data, and is a core component of handling and analyzing big data.
Action to Confidence in DevOps Changes
- Automated testing is crucial in DevOps environments to ensure the quality and reliability of code changes, providing confidence in the overall system stability and security.
Third-Party Federated Identity Service Truth
- Sign-on credentials are stored and managed centrally by the third-party service, simplifying user login and minimizing potential for credential compromise.
Computer Forensics Steps
- The process of Collecting Evidence from the digital system, Preserving Evidence to maintain its integrity, Analyzing Evidence to identify relevant data, and Reporting Evidence to document findings are the key steps in computer forensics.
Off-Site Storage Benefit
- Disaster recovery and business continuity are primary benefits of off-site storage, enabling organizations to maintain critical data availability and operational resilience in the event of a disaster affecting the primary site.
Disaster Recovery Plan Testing with Highest Risk
- Full-scale, live testing involves simulating a real disaster and fully restoring operations, posing the highest operational risk due to disruptions and potential system instability during the test.
Employee Role Change Trigger
- Re-evaluate access rights and permissions for the employee based on their new role to ensure they have appropriate access to sensitive information and resources.
Business Continuity Planning Objective
- The primary objective is to minimize the impact of disruptions to critical business operations by maintaining essential functions and ensuring business continuity in the face of unforeseen events.
Commercial Off-the-Shelf (COTS) Product Risk
- Vendor dependencies are a significant risk, as organizations relying on COTS products become dependent on the vendor for support, updates, and security patches, potentially impacting flexibility and control over operations.
First Step in Defining Cyber-Security Program
- Develop a comprehensive security policy based on industry standards like NIST Cybersecurity Framework, ISO 27001, or others, to establish a foundation for the program's principles, goals, and guidelines.
Security Operations Responsibilities for Violations
- Security operations are responsible for handling and reporting violations and incidents, monitoring and analyzing security data, responding to security threats, and conducting security investigations, ensuring the organization's cybersecurity resilience.
Preventing Multiple User Access to a Single Account
- Implement multi-factor authentication, requiring users to provide multiple forms of verification before accessing the account, preventing unauthorized access by others.
Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) Elements
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Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) elements include:
- Plan Development for outlining recovery procedures.
- Recovery Strategies for restoring critical functions.
- Testing and Training to ensure plan effectiveness.
- Communication Plan for informing stakeholders.
- Documentations and Procedures for detailed steps.
Ensuring Transaction Integrity
- Digital signatures provide a secure method to verify the sender's identity, authenticity, and integrity of transactions, ensuring data reaches the intended recipient unaltered.
Preventing Open Source Component Exploitation
- Regularly update and patch open-source software used in web applications to address known vulnerabilities, proactively preventing exploitation by attackers.
Secure Shell Fact
- Secure Shell (SSH) provides encrypted communication between client and server, enhancing confidentiality and integrity of data exchanged over the network.
Database Attack to Access Confidential Data
- A SQL injection attack could exploit vulnerabilities in a database system, enabling unauthorized access to sensitive customer service employee access to confidential quarterly sales data.
Framework for Vulnerability Metrics
- Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) provides a framework for vulnerability metrics and characteristics, supporting the National Vulnerability Database (NVD) to facilitate coordinated vulnerability management.
VoIP MITM Attack Mitigation
- End-to-end encryption, encompassing the entire VoIP communication pathway, helps mitigate man-in-the-middle attacks by ensuring data is encrypted even while passing through intermediate servers, preventing eavesdropping.
Object-Oriented Programming Defense-in-Depth Principle
- Data hiding through encapsulation prevents direct access to sensitive data objects, contributing to defense-in-depth by limiting the impact of potential security breaches.
Document Specifying Services from Client Viewpoint
- Service Level Agreements (SLAs) outline the specific services provided, their performance metrics, and responsibilities from the client's perspective, defining expectations and ensuring delivery.
SOC Report Type for Security Controls around Availability
- SOC 2 Type II report demonstrates the effectiveness of controls designed to ensure availability and security of a SaaS application over a specific timeframe, providing credible evidence for external parties.
OSI Layer Corresponding to TCP/IP's Network Access Layer
- Data Link Layer (Layer 2) in the OSI model corresponds to the Network Access Layer (Layer 1) in TCP/IP, focusing on physical networking components and frame transmission protocols.
Cloud Service Offering Description
- Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) model describes the service where the third-party provider handles all aspects of the service, including security controls, while the client solely provides the data.
Audit Standard for Vendor Information Systems
- ISO 27001 provides a comprehensive framework for understanding and assessing a vendor's Information Systems (IS) in relation to confidentiality, integrity, and availability, ensuring compliance and security best practices.
HDD Destruction Technique
- Degaussing is the most appropriate technique for destroying magnetic platter style hard disk drives (HDD) containing HIGH security data, as it uses a strong magnetic field to erase all data permanently.
Security Measure Categorization
- Employee training, risk management, and data handling procedures and policies are considered administrative security measures as they focus on organizational policies, procedures, and personnel training to enhance security.
SOC Report Type for 12-Month Security and Availability Outline
- SOC 2 Type II report provides a comprehensive assessment of the security and availability of a particular system over a 12-month period, outlining controls and operational effectiveness.
Endpoint Security and OS Version Verification Solution
- Endpoint Security Software offers the best solution to verify endpoint security protections and operating system (OS) versions, providing ongoing monitoring, vulnerability scanning, and security enforcement across devices.
Employee Reporting Suspicious Behavior
- The employee's report is most likely the result of Security Awareness Training, where individuals have been educated on recognizing and reporting suspicious activities, fostering a proactive security culture.
Tamper Seal Purpose on Computer System
- The primary purpose is to detect unauthorized access or tampering with the computer system's internal components, providing visual evidence if the seal is broken.
GDPR Data Protection Method
- Data Minimization is considered the best method for achieving GDPR compliance by minimizing the collection and storage of personal data, reducing potential risks and ensuring compliance with data protection principles.
Digital Forensic Process Order
- Identification, Preservation, Collection, Examination, Analysis, Reporting represents the typical order followed in a digital forensic investigation, ensuring evidence is collected, preserved, and examined judiciously before reporting findings.
Security Benefit of SDN Compared to Traditional Network
- Centralized control and programmability are key security benefits of Software Defined Networking (SDN) compared to traditional network architectures, enabling more granular and dynamic control over network security policies and configuration.
Mandatory (ISC)² Code of Ethics Canons
- The mandatory canons are Protect Society, Act Honorably, and Adhere to Professional Standards, serving as the foundation for ethical conduct and professional responsibility.
Key Management Problem Due to Key Quantity
- Key management complexity arises due to the sheer number of keys generated and managed, making tasks like storage, distribution, and revocation challenging.
Report to Review for Third-Party Risk Assessment
- Service Organization Control (SOC) 2 Type II report provides a comprehensive assessment of a supplier's security controls, including operational effectiveness, validating security, availability, confidentiality, and privacy trust principles.
Ensuring Graceful Handling of Invalid Input
- Input Validation is the most effective method to ensure systems and subsystems handle invalid input gracefully by verifying and sanitizing user input before processing, preventing vulnerabilities and errors.
Traffic Flow Determination Based on Infrastructure Status
- Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS) analyzes network traffic patterns and identifies potential malicious activity, providing alerts and triggering security responses based on the detected anomalies.
(ISC)² Code of Ethics Canon Reflected in Preserving Value
- The canon of Protect Society is most closely aligned with preserving the value of systems, applications, and entrusted information, as it emphasizes responsible use of technology and preventing harm to individuals or society.
Solution for Network Breach Discovery
- Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) is the most effective solution for discovering successful network breaches by aggregating security logs and events, providing real-time threat detection and incident response capabilities.
Technique for Evaluating Network Architecture Security Design
- Security Architecture Reviews involve assessing design principles, security controls, and vulnerabilities in network and software architectures to identify potential risks and weaknesses.
Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) Formula
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MTD = RTO + RPO where;
- RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is the maximum allowable downtime for a critical system or function before substantial impact.
- RPO (Recovery Point Objective) is the maximum acceptable data loss during an outage.
Two-Factor Authentication Solution
- Hardware-based authentication token such as a dedicated USB key or a mobile app generates unique time-based codes, offering the most secure two-factor authentication method.
First Step in Audit Preparation
- Define the scope and objectives of the security audit, clearly outlining the systems, applications, and processes to be examined and the specific vulnerabilities to be assessed.
Attacker Maintaining Indefinite Web Service Access
- Session hijacking enables attackers to exploit vulnerabilities to steal a valid session ID, allowing them to maintain access to a web service indefinitely without re-authenticating.
Attack Compromising Data Integrity During Transmission
- Man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks intercept communication between two parties during data transmission, allowing attackers to modify data and compromise its integrity and confidentiality.
Addressing Weak Mobile Device Access Controls
- Implementing Mobile Device Management (MDM) provides a centralized platform for controlling access to company information, enabling policies for device security, data encryption, and access restrictions.
Addressing Security Assessment During Software Acquisition
- Security requirements must be clearly defined and documented, forming the basis for selecting secure software and ensuring compliance with security standards throughout the acquisition process.
SIEM System Administrator Responsibility
- The administrator must ensure the SIEM system is effectively configured and maintained, accurately collecting and analyzing security events, providing timely alerts and reporting for effective threat detection and response.
System Allowing Access to Multiple Servers
- Single Sign-On (SSO) allows users to authenticate once and access multiple related servers and applications using a single set of credentials, streamlining user experience and improving security.
Authentication System Prompting for Different Response
- Challenge-Response Authentication prompts users for different responses each time they log on, enhancing security by requiring dynamic authentication factors and preventing replay attacks.
Difficulty Enforcing Criminal Law in Cybercrime
- Jurisdictional limitations, as cybercrime often transcends national boundaries, making it difficult to establish clear jurisdiction and enforce laws across different countries.
Security Metrics Characteristics
- Measurable, Relevant, Actionable, and Timely are key characteristics of effective security metrics, enabling organizations to track progress, identify trends, and make informed security-related decisions.
Identifying Software Acquisition Risk Phase
- Requirements and Planning phase is the best stage to identify risks associated with software acquisition strategies, as it defines the security requirements and evaluates potential vendors and products.
Incident Triggered by SIEM
- Suspicious user activities, unusual network traffic patterns, and anomalies in system logs are events that would be considered incidents if reported by a SIEM, triggering further investigation and potential security response.
Biometric Value for Access Control Adjustment
- Threshold is the biometric value used to regulate access control, adjusting to minimize errors by finding a balance between granting access to legitimate users and preventing access to unauthorized individuals.
Spyware Description
- Spyware refers to software secretly installed on a device to monitor user activity, collect personal data, or control system behavior without explicit consent.
Assumption When Customs Examines Computer
- Assume all data on the computer may be accessed and potentially copied, as customs officials have legal authority to search and seize devices during international travel, regardless of personal data privacy concerns.
Logical Access Control Initial Components
- Identification is the first stage, establishing user identity through username, account ID, or other credentials.
- Authentication verifies the user's identity by comparing provided credentials against stored records to ensure legitimacy.
Security Assessment Plan Purpose
- Identify potential vulnerabilities in a system, network, or application, prioritize risks, and provide recommendations for mitigating those threats to improve overall security.
BIA Purpose
- A business impact analysis (BIA) identifies the potential impact of disruptions to business operations, prioritizes critical functions, estimates financial losses, and helps determine the recovery strategies necessary to minimize business disruptions.
Data Owner Requirement Before Retention Policy
- Define the data classification and sensitivity levels are the first requirement, understanding the value and importance of the data before creating a retention policy to ensure appropriate storage and disposition practices.
ISCM Strategy First Step
- Identify and assess information security risks is the foundational step in developing an ISCM strategy, as it sets the stage for addressing potential vulnerabilities and threats, driving the program's overall direction.
CPS Security Practitioner's First Consideration
- Data Security and Integrity is the primary consideration when designing a Cyber-Physical System (CPS), addressing how to protect data from manipulation or unauthorized access, ensuring the system's reliability and safety.
Network Architecture for Mobile Device Risk Mitigation
- Network Segmentation is a key feature in reducing corporate risks associated with mobile devices as it isolates private network segments and limits the potential impact of breaches.
Mantrap Outer Door Design Feature
- One-way locking mechanism ensuring the outer door cannot be opened from the inside while the inner door is unlocked is a critical design feature of a mantrap to prevent individuals from entering or exiting unauthorizedly.
Expectation When Reviewing Security Test Results
- Objectivity is vital when reviewing security test results, emphasizing a critical evaluation of findings and avoiding confirmation bias to ensure a fair assessment.
Software Security Testing Goal
- Identify security vulnerabilities and weaknesses in software applications, ensuring their security, reliability, and resilience against attacks.
Information Asset Accuracy Statement
- Any item of value is a broad and accurate statement regarding information assets, recognizing that any item with value, whether tangible or intangible, can be considered an asset and subject to security considerations.
Implementing MFA on Customer-Facing Application
- Utilizing one-time passwords (OTPs) generated by a mobile app or hardware token is the best option for implementing MFA on a customer-facing application, as it requires a unique, time-sensitive code in addition to the username and password.
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