BB Glossary

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Questions and Answers

What distinguishes an alloantibody?

  • It reacts against self-antigens.
  • It is a naturally occurring antibody like anti-A or anti-B.
  • It enhances antigen-antibody reactions.
  • It's an immune antibody against a foreign antigen of the same species. (correct)

An amorph gene always produces a detectable antigen.

False (B)

What is the term for clumping of particulate antigens with their corresponding specific antibodies?

Agglutination

The introduction of antigens to stimulate antibody production is known as active ________.

<p>immunization</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following blood bag additives with their corresponding laboratory or corporation:

<p>AS-1 = Fenwal Laboratory AS-3 = Medsep Corporation AS-S = Terumo Corporation</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term describes the situation where forward and reverse ABO typing results disagree?

<p>ABO discrepancy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of antibody production following a secondary exposure to an antigen, what is the least accurate descriptive term?

<p>Immediate hypersensitivity reaction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

State the underlying immunological principle behind the 'absorption' technique used in blood banking, and explain why this process is crucial for resolving complex antibody mixtures, especially when dealing with autoantibodies or multiple alloantibodies.

<p>Absorption involves using cells with known antigen specificity to selectively remove specific antibodies from a mixture, facilitating identification of remaining antibodies. This is crucial for complex antibody mixtures, particularly autoantibodies or multiple alloantibodies, to isolate and identify each antibody.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes an antigen?

<p>Any foreign substance that stimulates antibody production when introduced to the body. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which blood component is primarily administered to patients with clotting factor deficiencies, excluding hemophilia A, Von Willebrand disease, and hypofibrinogenemia?

<p>Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The direct antiglobulin test (DAT) detects in vitro cell sensitization.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does AHG stand for, and what is its general function in immunohematology?

<p>Antihuman Globulin; It bridges the gap between antibody-coated red cells to enhance agglutination.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Single platelet concentrate contains at least 5.5 x 10¹⁰ platelets.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

__________ is the removal of plasma from a patient's blood, with the remaining components returned to the patient.

<p>Plasmapheresis</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of rejuvenating red blood cells?

<p>To restore 2,3-diphosphoglycerate and ATP to at least normal levels.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the apheresis procedure with the blood component that is removed:

<p>Plateletpheresis = Platelets Leukapheresis = Leukocytes Plasmapheresis = Plasma</p> Signup and view all the answers

A blood component preparation using a sterile intact blood bag system is known as a ______ system.

<p>closed</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following blood components with their primary characteristic or use:

<p>Packed RBC = High hematocrit level (~80%) Cryoprecipitate = Concentrated Factor VIII and Fibrinogen Factor Concentrate = Improve coagulation stability Rejuvenated RBC = Restoration of 2,3-DPG and ATP levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is meant by the term 'antithetical' in the context of blood group antigens?

<p>Antigens controlled by a pair of allelic genes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which blood group systems are known to demonstrate blood group-specific soluble substances (BGSSs)?

<p>ABO, Lewis, P (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain the purpose of autocontrol in antibody detection and what a positive result typically indicates.

<p>The purpose of the autocontrol is to test the patient's serum for reactivity against their own red cells, which may suggest the presence of autoantibodies.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Assuming a patient has a high-titer, low-avidity (HTLA) antibody, which of the following actions is LEAST appropriate in resolving a compatibility issue?

<p>Ignoring the antibody due to its low clinical significance and transfusing any available unit. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain the key difference between an open and closed system in blood component preparation regarding the timeframe for blood and component usage post-exposure.

<p>An open system limits blood and component use to within 24 hours after air exposure, while a closed system extends usability to the expiration date due to sterility.</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of Factor Concentrates, which of the following is NOT a key advantage over FFP transfusion?

<p>Increased risk of infectious complications (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes forward typing in blood group determination?

<p>Determining red cell antigens through known antiserum. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Bombay phenotype (Oh) results from an over-expression of the H gene, leading to altered expression of A and B genes.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What temperature range is typically used to store blood in a refrigerator before it is warmed for infusion?

<p>4°C-6°C</p> Signup and view all the answers

An individual with the Bombay phenotype has a potent anti-__ in their serum.

<p>H</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following coagulation factors with their common names:

<p>Factor VIII = Antihemophilic factor A Factor IX = Christmas factor Factor II = Prothrombin Factor I = Fibrinogen</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a phase included in a broad spectrum compatibility test (crossmatching)?

<p>Saline Replacement (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In chronic granulomatous disease (CGD), which aspect of phagocytic cell function is primarily impaired?

<p>Generation of superoxide radicals (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the functional difference between Factor V and Factor VI in the coagulation cascade?

<p>Factor VI does not exist; it was found to be activated Factor V.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of component therapy in blood transfusions?

<p>To transfuse specific blood components based on the patient's needs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A minor crossmatch involves mixing the patient's serum with the donor's red blood cells.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To protect cells from the harmful effects of freezing, a ______ such as DMSO is added.

<p>cryoprotective agent</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does CCI stand for, and what is it used to evaluate?

<p>Corrected Count Increment; the effectiveness of platelet transfusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of Coombs' control cells (check cells)?

<p>To confirm negative results in antihuman globulin tests. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following terms with their descriptions.

<p>Deglycerolization = Process of removing glycerol from RBCs after thawing Cryptantigens = Hidden receptors exposed by bacterial or viral enzymes Dithiotreitol (DTT) = Breaks down disulfide bonds of IgM antibodies Donath-Landsteiner antibody = IgG antibody associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of genetic testing for parentage, what does 'direct exclusion' refer to?

<p>A genetic marker present in the child but absent in both the mother and the alleged father. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The immediate spin crossmatch is a preliminary test for ABO incompatibility. However, what critical limitation must be considered when interpreting a compatible result in this test?

<p>It excludes the possibility of clinically significant alloantibodies other than ABO. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes a 'walking blood donor'?

<p>A prescreened, qualified voluntary donor readily available in the community. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Dosage, in the context of blood banking, refers to when an antibody reacts equally strongly with red blood cells showing a single or double dose of antigens.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of performing elution in blood banking?

<p>To release antibodies from sensitized red blood cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Erythroblastosis fetalis, also known as hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) or _______ _______, results from immunologic incompatibility between mother and fetus.

<p>hydrops fetalis</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the dye with the color it imparts to the reagent:

<p>Anti-A = Blue Anti-B = Yellow AHG = Green</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following enzymes is NOT a proteolytic enzyme used in blood banking?

<p>Lipase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of blood banking, what does 'exposure' typically refer to?

<p>The likelihood of a person encountering foreign substances, such as through transfusion or pregnancy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Define fibronectin and its role in immune response within the context of blood.

<p>Fibronectin is a large glycoprotein that mediates both cellular adhesion and immune responses.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

ABO discrepancy

ABO forward typing result that disagrees with backward typing.

Absorption

Removing specific antibody from a mixture using cells with known specificity.

Active immunization

Antibody production after exposure to an antigen.

Additives (blood bags)

Chemicals added to red cells to extend shelf life (up to 42 days).

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Agammaglobulinemia

Condition with absence of antibodies.

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Agglutination

Clumping of antigens with their specific antibodies; hemagglutination if the antigen source is red cells.

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Amorph

"Silent gene" that does not produce a detectable antigen (e.g., O gene).

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Alloantibody

Antibody produced against foreign antigen of the same species.

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Antigen

Any foreign substance that stimulates antibody production when introduced to the body.

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Antigenicity

The relative ability of a substance to trigger an immune response.

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Antigram

A reagent used to screen for and identify immune antibodies.

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Antihuman Globulin Reagent (AHG)

A secondary antibody that targets human IgG or complement.

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Antihuman Globulin Test (AGT)

A test using antibodies against human globulins to detect RBCs sensitized by IgG alloantibodies, IgG autoantibodies, and/or complement.

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Antiserum

A commercially prepared reagent containing an antibody with known specificity.

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Apheresis

Method of blood collection where whole blood is withdrawn, processed, and the unneeded components are returned to the donor.

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Autocontrol

Testing the patient's serum for antibodies against their own red blood cells, used to detect autoantibodies.

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Blood Group System

System classifying blood by inherited antigenic substances on red blood cells. ISBT recognizes 30 systems.

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Blood Typing

Test to determine a person's blood group.

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Forward Typing (Direct/Cell Typing)

Detects red cell antigens using known antisera; identifies the antigen present on the patient's RBCs.

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Backward Typing (Indirect/Serum Typing)

Detects serum antibodies using cells with known antigens; identifies antibodies in the patient’s serum.

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Bombay Phenotype (Oh)

Failure to express A or B genes due to lack of the H gene, resulting in potent anti-H antibodies.

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Chimerism

A condition where an individual has two distinct cell populations.

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Compatibility Test

Group of tests including ABO/Rh grouping, alloantibody screening, and crossmatching.

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Compatible

Serologically inactive when mixed; no reaction occurs.

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Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)

Frozen plasma containing all clotting factors, used for clotting factor deficiencies (excluding hemophilia A, Von Willebrand disease, and hypofibrinogenemia).

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Packed RBCs

Red cell component with a hematocrit level of approximately 80%, prepared by separating plasma from whole blood.

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Platelet Concentrate

Platelets removed from fresh whole blood, stored for transfusion to help with blood clotting.

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Random Platelet Concentrate

Platelet concentrate containing at least 5.5 x 10¹⁰ platelets, obtained manually by centrifugation.

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Single Platelet Concentrate

Platelet concentrate containing about 3.0 x 10¹¹ platelets, obtained by apheresis (automated collection).

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Cryoprecipitate

Concentrated Factor VIII and Factor 1 (fibrinogen) extracted from fresh frozen plasma; used in clotting disorders.

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Blood Component Preparation

Use of refrigerated centrifugation to separate blood into its different cellular and liquid components.

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Open System (Blood Prep)

A blood component preparation that limits the use of blood and its components within 24 hours after exposure of the blood to open air.

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Component Therapy

Transfusing specific blood components (e.g., platelets, red cells) instead of whole blood.

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Coombs' Control Cells

Antibody-coated cells confirming negative results in AHG tests.

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Cord Cells

Blood-containing stem cells from the umbilical cord after birth.

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Corrected Count Increment (CCI)

Evaluating platelet transfusion effectiveness using a calculated value.

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Crossmatch

Testing patient blood against donor blood for compatibility.

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Cryoprotective Agent

Substances protecting red blood cells from freezing damage.

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Deglycerolization

Removing glycerol from frozen red cells to restore normal osmolality.

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Dithiothreitol (DTT)

Agent used to break down disulfide bonds of IgM antibodies.

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Paid blood donor

Donor who gives blood for monetary compensation.

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Walking blood donor

Prescreened, qualified volunteer donor ready to donate anytime.

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Dosage (in serology)

Antibody reacts stronger with double dose antigens than single.

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Dye (in blood banking)

Coloring substance used in blood banking.

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Eluate

Product of breaking immune complex to release antibody.

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Elution

Process to disrupt antigen-antibody bonds on cells.

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Erythroblastosis fetalis

Immunologic incompatibility between mother and fetus, causing RBC destruction.

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Exchange transfusion

Replacement of infant's coated RBCs with donor blood.

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Study Notes

  • ABO discrepancy is when the ABO forward typing result does not agree with the reverse typing result.
  • Absorption is the removal of a specific antibody from a mixture of antibodies using cells of known specificity.
  • Active immunization is the production of antibody after antigenic exposure or stimulation.
  • Additives are chemical substances added to red cells to extend the shelf life up to 42 days.

Blood Bag Additives:

  • AS-1 (Adsol): Fenwal Laboratory
  • AS-3 (Nutricel): Medsep Corporation
  • AS-5 (Optisol): Terumo Corporation
  • Agammaglobulinemia is a rare condition characterized by the absence of antibodies.
  • Agglutination is the clumping of particulate antigens with their corresponding specific antibodies; if the source of the antigen is a red cell, clumping is identified as hemagglutination.
  • Allele is an alternative form of a gene occupying a given locus.
  • Amniocentesis is the process of collecting amniotic fluid.
  • Amniotic fluid is the albuminous fluid contained in an amniotic sac providing nutrients to the developing fetus.
  • Amorph is the "silent gene" that does not produce a detectable antigen; an example is the O gene.
  • Anamnestic response, also known as "secondary immune response," refers to the production of antibodies after secondary antigenic exposure.
  • Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic hypersensitivity reaction brought about by an antibody against IgA seen among IgA-deficient patients exposed to IgA antibody.
  • Antenatal occurs before birth.
  • Antibody, also known as "immunoglobulin," is a protein substance secreted by plasma cells and produced in response to antigenic stimulation.

Types of Antibodies:

  • Alloantibody: immune antibody against foreign antigen of the same species.
  • Autoantibody: antibody against its own self-antigens.
  • Atypical antibody: also known as "unexpected antibody," refers to an antibody other than the naturally occurring anti-A and anti-B.
  • Naturally occurring antibody: isoantibodies referred to as anti-A and anti-B.
  • Monoclonal antibody: antibody derived from a single clone of cells.
  • Polyclonal antibody: antibody derived from more than one antibody-producing plasma cells.
  • Antibody potentiators are reagents used to enhance or speed up antigen-antibody reactions.
  • Antibody screening test identifies immune antibodies other than the naturally occurring ones through completely phenotyped group "O" cells.
  • Antigen refers to any foreign substance which stimulates antibody production when introduced to the body.
  • Antigenic describes the relative ability of a substance to elicit an immune response.
  • Antigram is a book identifying immune antibodies showing differing responses, used to screen and identify immune antibodies.
  • Antihuman globulin reagent (AHG), also known as "Coombs' serum," is a secondary antibody directed against human IgG or complement.

Types of AHG:

  • Monospecific AHG: targets either human IgG or complement C3.
  • Polyspecific AHG: targets both human IgG and complement C3.
  • Antihuman globulin test (AGT), also known as "Coombs' test," uses antibodies directed against human globulins in order to detect RBCs sensitized by IgG alloantibodies, IgG autoantibodies, and/or complement components.

Types of AGT:

  • Direct antiglobulin test (DAT): used to detect in vivo cell sensitization.
  • Indirect antiglobulin test (IAT): used to detect in vitro cell sensitization.
  • Antiserum is a commercially prepared reagent containing an antibody with known specificity.
  • Antithetical is used to describe antigens controlled by a pair of allelic genes.
  • Apheresis is a blood collection method where whole blood is withdrawn, processed, and the desired component collected while the remainder of the blood is returned to the donor.

Types of Apheresis:

  • Plateletpheresis: removal of platelets.
  • Leukapheresis: removal of leukocytes.
  • Plasmapheresis: removal of plasma.
  • Autoabsorption is antibody removal process through the use of the patient's own antigen.
  • Autocontrol, abbreviated as PS-PR (patient serum-patient red cell), tests patient's serum for antibody against one's own red cells; it is used to detect autoantibodies.
  • Avidity refers to the strength of an antigen-antibody reaction, as influenced by characteristic antigen and antibody features.
  • Biohazards are biological threat to health of living organisms, especially humans.
  • Biphasic hemolysin is an antibody with reactivity in two phases.
  • Blood bag is a single bag or interconnected multiple bags with tubings used in blood donation.
  • Blood bank is a major division in a hospital laboratory providing safe blood by performing blood screening and compatibility testing.
  • Blood component refers to the different cellular and liquid blood compositions separated by physical means.

Blood Components:

  • Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) contains all clotting factors and is administered to patients with clotting factor deficiencies other than hemophilia A, Von Willebrand disease, and hypofibrinogenemia.
  • Packed RBC are red cell components that result from separating the plasma from whole blood, resulting in hematocrit level of approximately 80%.
  • Platelet concentrate consists of platelets removed from unrefrigerated fresh whole blood and stored for transfusion.
  • Random platelet concentrate has at least 5.5 x 10¹⁰ platelets obtained manually by centrifugation.
  • Single platelet concentrate has about 3.0 x 10¹¹ platelets obtained by apheresis.
  • Cryoprecipitate is a Factor VIII and Factor I coagulated concentrate extracted from fresh frozen plasma.
  • Factor concentrate includes prothrombin complexes, Factor XIII, and Factor VII; most commonly indicated in trauma, liver disease, and oral anticoagulant toxicity.
  • Frozen red cells are erythrocytes treated with a cryoprotective agent then kept in freezing temperatures.
  • Rejuvenated red cells are pyruvate, inosine, phosphate, and adenine treated erythrocytes which restore normal levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) and ATP.
  • Blood component preparation applies physical means such as refrigerated centrifugation to separate the different blood compositions.
  • Open system is a manual blood component preparation that limits blood and blood components to within 24 hours after the blood is exposed to open air.
  • Closed system is a blood component preparation, that usually requires the refrigerated centrifuge, that limits blood use and its components to a longer period up to the expiration date because of its sterile intact blood bag system.
  • Blood filter is a filter device attached to a blood or blood component unit designed to retain unwanted cells, blood clots, or debris.
  • Blood group specific soluble substances (BGSSs) are soluble antigens present in fluids that can be used to neutralize their corresponding antibodies; blood group systems demonstrating BGSSs are ABO, Lewis, and P.
  • Blood group system classifies blood based on the presence or absence of inherited antigenic substances on red blood cells; currently, there are 30 recognized systems.
  • Blood typing tests what determines a blood group system.

Blood Typing Methods:

  • Forward typing/Direct typing/Cell typing is determination of red cell antigens through an antiserum of known specificity; called "antigen phenotyping."
  • Backward typing/Indirect typing/Serum typing determines plasma antibodies using cells which display a known antigenic profile.
  • Blood warmer is a device used to warm blood from refrigerator temperature (4°C-6°C) to body temperature before infusion.
  • Bombay phenotype (Oh) defines the failure of an individual to express inherited A or B genes due to the lack of the H gene; individual with Bombay phenotype has a potent anti-H in his/her serum; Bombay phenotype is designated as Oh.
  • Bovine serum albumin is the main soluble protein in cattle serum, often used as an enzymatically inert protein or a negative control.
  • Broad spectrum compatibility test is the best methods for crossmatching which includes: immediate spin, thermophase, and AHG phase.
  • Chimerism is condition producing two cell populations in an individual.
  • Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) defines the difficulty of phagocytic cells generating superoxide radicals to kill ingested pathogens; CGD sufferers experience recurrent suppurative bacterial and fungal infections starting in early childhood.
  • Coagulation factors include fibrinogen, prothrombin, tissue factor, calcium, proaccelerin, activated factor 5, proconvertin, antihemophilic factor A, Christmas factor and Stuart-Prower factor.
  • Factor 1 is fibrinogen.
  • Factor 2 is prothrombin.
  • Factor 3 is tissue factor.
  • Factor 4 is calcium.
  • Factor 5 is proaccelerin.
  • Factor 6 is activated factor 5.
  • Factor 7 is proconvertin.
  • Factor 8 is antihemophilic factor A.
  • Factor 9 is Christmas factor.
  • Factor 10 is Stuart-Prower factor.
  • Factor 11 is plasma thromboplastin antecedent.
  • Factor 12 is Hageman factor.
  • Factor 13 is fibrin-stabilizing factor.
  • Codon is a sequence of three bases in a DNA strand providing the genetic code for a specific amino acid.
  • Compatibility test is a batch of tests including ABO and Rh grouping, serum screening for alloantibodies, and crossmatching.
  • Compatible is serologically inactive when mixed.
  • Complement is a complex of plasma proteins.
  • Component therapy is the transfusion of specific components in order to treat a patient.
  • Coombs' control/check cells are antibody-coated cells used to confirm negative results obtained in direct and indirect antihuman globulin tests.
  • Cord cells are blood-containing stem cells taken from the umbilical cord after childbirth.
  • Corrected count increment (CCI) is a computed value used to evaluate the effectiveness of platelet transfusion.
  • Crossing over exchanges genetic material between two homologous pairs of chromosomes.
  • Crossmatch tests the patient's blood against the donor's blood.

Crossmatch Types:

  • Major crossmatch (PS-DR) mixes patient's serum with donor's red blood cells.
  • Minor crossmatch (PR-DS) mixes patient's red blood cells with donor's serum.
  • Immediate crossmatch mixes recipient's serum with donor's red blood cells and centrifuging immediately; absence of both hemolysis and agglutination indicates compatibility.
  • Computerized crossmatch is performed by a computer.
  • Abbreviated crossmatch uses a coupled with immediate spin type and screen method.
  • Cryoprotective agents protect, when added to erythrocytes, against the harmful freezing temperatures.
  • Cryptantigens are hidden receptors that may be exposed when normal erythrocyte membranes are altered by bacterial or viral enzymes.
  • Deglycerolization removes glycerol from a unit of RBCs after thawing to return them to normal osmolality.
  • Deglycerolized red cells had glycerol removed after multiple washings.
  • Dextran is a plasma expander that can be used as a substitute for plasma.
  • Direct exclusion defines a genetic marker present in the child, but absent its mother and the alleged Father.
  • Dithiothreitol (DTT) is a sulfhydryl compound which breaks down disulfide bonds of IgM.
  • DMSO refers to dimethyl sulfoxide, a cryoprotectant for hematopoietic progenitor cells.
  • Donath-Landsteiner antibody is a biphasic IgG,directed to anti in patients with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH).
  • Donation process of blood being given to someone.
  • Donor is an individual who gives blood in a blood donation

Donors:

  • Voluntary blood donor gives blood on his/her own volition.
  • Paid blood donor gives blood for monetary compensation.
  • Walking blood donor is a prescreened donor who is on a list of qualified voluntary donors and is fit to donate. Dosage is when an antibody reacts more strongly with blood cells that has a double dose of antigens than those with a single dose.

Dyes:

  • Blue dyes dye anti-A a blue color.
  • Bromphenol blue
  • Thymol blue
  • Patent blue
  • Yellow dyes dyes gives anti-B a yellow color.
  • Acriflavin
  • Tartrazine yellow
  • Green dye combines a blue and yellow dye to dye AHG a green color.
  • Eluate deliberately breaks red cell suspension to make the antibody into the surrounding medium.
  • Elution treats cells coated with antibodies in order to disrupt the bond between the antigen and the antibody.
  • Enzyme is a substance which acts as a catalyst in a reaction.

Enzymes:

  • Bromelin is proteolytic and obtained from pineapple.
  • Trypsin is proteolytic and formed in the human intestine.
  • Ficin is proteolytic and obtained from the latex of fig trees.
  • Papain is proteolytic and derived from papaya.
  • Erythroblastosis fetalis is an incompatibility between the mother and the fetus that can severely damage the fetus/newborn due to RBC destruction; also known as "hydrops fetalis" or hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN).
  • Exchange transfusion replaces an infant's coated RBCs with donor blood until one or two total blood volumes has been replaced.
  • Exposure defines when a person is likely to get a foreign substance.
  • Febrile reaction is a leukocyte reaction with a fever.
  • Fetomaternal hemorrhage is the transplacental passage of fetal blood into the circulation of the maternal organism.
  • Fibrin is a filamentous clot that forms with the actions of thrombin on firbinogen.
  • Fibrinolysin, also "plasmin", has the ability to dissolve fibrin.
  • Fibrinolysis dissolves fibrin due to the action of fibrinolsyin.
  • Fibronectin is large glycoprotein that adheres to a cell.
  • Gamma globulin is one of five types of immunoglobulin involved in immunity; produced during the second immune response.
  • Gene is a unit of inheritance in a chromosome.

Gene Descriptors:

  • Codominant is a descriptor for a pair of genes that neither are dominant.
  • Amorphic is a gene that may not produce a detectable antigen.
  • Allelic describes one of 2 different genes that may appear in a specific chromsome.
  • Dominant describes a gene that is expressed no matter what.
  • Recessive describes a gene that is not expressed unless it is in the homozygous form.
  • Regulatory describes a gene that produces a repressor substance that inhibits an operator gene.
  • Suppressor describes a gene that suppresses the expression of another gene.
  • Gene locus describes a specific place on a chromosome.

Gene Positions:

  • Cis-position describes a gene on one chromosome of a homologous pair affects the related gene on the same chromosome.
  • Trans-position describes a gene on one chromosome of a homologous pair affects the action of the related gene on the other homolog.
  • Genotype is a person's actual genetic makeup.
  • Homozygous has two similar genes for a trait.
  • Heterozygous has two different genes for the same trait.
  • Glycerol is a cryoprotective agent.
  • Glycerolization adds that agent to a red blood cell unit to prevent the hemolysis of erythrocytes while freezing.
  • Glycolipid is a carbohydrate-attached lipid.
  • Glycophorin is a type of intergral protein.
  • Glycoproteins consists of both carbohydrates and protein.
  • Glycosphingolipid is a sphingolipid containing sugar,glucose,galactose.
  • Glycosyltransferase is an enzyme needed to attach sugar to a predetermined acceptor molecule.
  • Graft vs. Host disease (GvHD) occurs hen engrafted attacks the hosts.
  • Granulocytopenia decreases theamount of WBC in blood.
  • Haplotype is group of genes that pass together.
  • Hapten is a small substance to stimulate antibody production.
  • Haptoglobin is a plasma protein which binds to hemoglobin.
  • Hemodilution is an increase in volume of blood decreasingconcentration of red blood cells.
  • Hemolysis is the distruction of blood cell,that release hemoglobin.

Types of Hemolysis:

  • Extravascular destroys the blood vells outside.
  • Intravascular destroys blood cessels from the inside.
  • Hemolytic anemia is a severe condistion with low count.

Types of Hemolytic Anemia :

  • Immune Hemolytic anemia is triggered by a humoral antibody
  • Autoimmune Hemolytic anemia is where autoantibodies fight the patient own blood cells.
  • Drug-induced hemolytic anemia comes from drug-induced.
  • Alloimmune hemolytic anemia is foreign red cell antigens.

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Bb Trumpet Major Scales

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