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Collection of an adequate amount of blood is critical for the diagnosis of a bloodstream infection. What is an example of improper technique?

  • 2 sets of blood culture bottles per septic episode
  • 2 blood culture bottles collected per set
  • 5-7 ml of blood collected per bottle (correct)
  • 3 sets of blood culture bottles for patients with endocarditis

Stool samples will be rejected for bacterial culture and sensitivity testing if:

  • Refrigerated during transport
  • Stool is 'loose' (not formed)
  • Transported in Sodium Acetate Formalin Fixative Media (correct)
  • Transported in Enteric Pathogen Transport Media

Urine dipstick is used to identify which of the following characteristics?

  • Leukocyte esterase indicative of archaea in the urine
  • Nitrites indicative of bacterial infection (correct)
  • Nitrites indicative of a fungal infection
  • Antigens indicative of viral infection

A sputum sample has been sent to the lab from a patient presenting with laboured breathing, cough, myalgia, and fever. The sample's Gram stain result shows 'no bacteria are observed'; what conclusions can the nurse draw from this result?

<p>More testing is required to rule out an infection (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How often is HIV transmitted through NSI/Sharps injuries?

<p>0.3% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is NOT a most commonly reported cause of NSI injuries?

<p>Accessing IV lines (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct order of the hierarchy of controls from MOST effective to LEAST effective?

<p>Elimination, substitution, engineering controls, administrative controls, PPE (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of infection is more likely to occur with needlestick/sharps injuries?

<p>HBV (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How effective are the HBV vaccines?

<p>95-100% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which pathogen(s) is(are) associated with Impetigo? (SATA)

<p>Streptococcus pyogenes (D), Staphylococcus aureus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child presents with small red sores that break open, ooze fluid, and form honey-colored crusts on the face. The sores are not painful. What is the child's diagnosis?

<p>Non-bullous Impetigo (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with multiple painful, red, swollen, pus-filled lumps on the back of their neck and shoulders. What diagnosis do they have?

<p>Carbuncle (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with furuncles (boils). What pathogen is commonly associated with this diagnosis?

<p>Staphylococcus aureus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents to the ER with deep sores that are painful with thick crusts and red, inflamed edges. What is the diagnosis?

<p>Ecthyma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Shingles typically affect the body? (SATA)

<p>It cause pain, burning, and tingling due to nerve inflammation (D), It is unilateral following a dermatome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of bug is known for 'breakfast, lunch, and dinner'?

<p>Bed Bug (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Candida skin infection?

<p>A fungal infection that causes skin infections in warm, moist areas (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnoses are associated with a Candida Skin Infection? (Select all that apply)

<p>Diaper Rash (A), Yeast Infection (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using cultures for microorganism identification?

<p>Long TAT (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of streaking bacteria on an agar plate?

<p>To isolate and identify different types of bacteria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry, what happens during the 'Time of Flight' step?

<p>Ionized particles are accelerated in an electric field and travel through a vacuum tube (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a major advantage of PCR testing for bacterial infections?

<p>It can detect even small quantities of bacterial DNA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it recommended to wait 30 minutes between blood culture sets?

<p>To reduce the risk of contamination (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the preferred source for blood cultures to avoid false positives?

<p>Peripheral blood culture (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for disinfecting the venipuncture site before drawing blood cultures?

<p>To prevent contamination from skin bacteria (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many sets of blood cultures are typically required per sepsis episode?

<p>2 sets (4 bottles) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most critical factor when collecting blood cultures for diagnosing bloodstream infections?

<p>Volume of blood collected (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should blood cultures be drawn before initiating antimicrobial therapy?

<p>To prevent false-negative results due to bacterial suppression (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding blood culture collection and testing is true?

<p>Blood cultures drawn through a catheter are more likely to result in a false positive result when compared to a peripherally drawn blood sample (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A professional hockey player presents to your clinic with a history of fever, headache, malaise, myalgia, and a swollen parotid gland. When providing their history, the patient indicates that other members of their team were feeling 'under the weather' approximately 2 weeks prior to this individual becoming symptomatic. The patient indicates their symptoms started 10 days ago. Which of the following samples for PCR testing is most likely to indicate the cause of infection?

<p>Urine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is assessing a patient with suspected mumps virus infection. Which of the following lab results is most consistent with early acute infection of mumps?

<p>Negative IgG and IgM antibody, mumps nucleic acid detected by PCR (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are managing a patient who recently tested positive for COVID-19 and is now in the 'resolution stage' of their infection. What guidance should you provide regarding clearance from isolation?

<p>Isolate for 10 days from symptom onset and until symptoms have been improving for 24 hours (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The average number of new cases of SARS-CoV-2 caused by one case was last reported to be 2.5, based on Ontario observational data. This is an example of SARS-CoV-2:

<p>Reproductive Rate (R0) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding rapid antigen tests (RATs) for SARS-CoV-2 detection is correct?

<p>RATs are able to detect SARS-CoV-2 infection over a shorter period of time following infection compared to molecular tests (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are the public health nurse following up on a possible contact of a case of COVID-19 infection. The case has lab-confirmed COVID-19 infection and was symptomatic. Which of the following exposure scenarios would you be most concerned could result in a new infection in the contact patient you are following up with?

<p>The contact's last potential exposure with the case was 24 hours before the case developed symptoms (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not an example of a primary prevention activity of a public health nurse?

<p>Notifiable disease reporting to the Medical Officer of Health (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Capital of France (example flashcard)

Paris

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