Hospital And Clinical Pharmacy Questions PDF

HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY 9. The following are factors that may exacerbate 1. Which of the following is NOT included in the established chronic renal failure, EXCEPT: treatment algorithm for allergic rhinitis?...

HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY 9. The following are factors that may exacerbate 1. Which of the following is NOT included in the established chronic renal failure, EXCEPT: treatment algorithm for allergic rhinitis? A. Hypotension D. Nephrotoxins A. Implement appropriate environmental controls. B. Prostatic hypertrophy E. Hypertension B. Consider Cromolyn if with sneezing, itching and C. Increased renal blood flow rhinorrhea. C. Administer intranasal steroids if with sneezing, 10. Another term for nearsightedness: itching, rhinorrhea, and nasal congestion. D. Give intranasal anticholinergics if with sneezing and A. astigmatism D. Presbyopia ocular symptoms. B. hyperopia E. Myopia E.I f symptoms still not controlled, consider Montelukast. C. exophthalmos 2. Clinical presentation of Acute Renal Failure includes: 11. Which of the following may cause “hairy tongue”? A. Edema D. A, B, C A. Hypercholesterolemia D. Liver disease B. Orthostatic Hypotension E. A and B B. Antibiotic therapy E. Aging C. Foamy urine C. Measles 3. Nail and nail beds are evaluated for which of the 12. Which strategy may be advised to a patient who following? considers Beta blockers unpleasant to take? A. Clubbing D. All of these A. Change the dosage regimen. D. A and B B. Cyanosis E. None of these B. Consider verapamil. E. All of these C. Trauma C. Encourage patient to use regularly. 4. Why is the Rinne Test performed? 13. Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding Captopril? A. To assess equilibrium. B. To hearing acuity of high-frequency sounds. A. Taken once daily. C. To evaluate hearing in a person who hears better in B. First-dose hypotension may occur one ear than in the other. C. May worsen renal failure D. To compare air and bone conduction. D. Cough and taste disturbance may occur E. All of these E. Hyperkalemia may be expected 5. Blistering of the skin due to second-degree burns is 14. The following drugs may increase anticoagulant an example of a: effect, EXCEPT: A. Excoriation D. Nevus A. Ketoconazole D. Erythromycin B. Lichenification E. Bulla B. Estrogen E. Zafirlukast C. Millium C. Gemfibrozil 6. Method of assessing the sinuses: 15. Drug-induced bronchospasm due to reflex bronchoconstriction: A. Inspection D. Expression B. Percussion E. Auscultation A. Pilocarpine D. Penicillin C. Transillumination B. Aspirin E. Timolol C. Lactose dry powder 7. Which body position allows longer retention times for enemas? 16. Physical assessment technique of creating a note by tapping a finger placed on the body: A. Lithotomy D. Erect B. Supine E. Prone A. Palpation D. Direct percussion C. Sitting B. Auscultation E. Indirect percussion C. Ballotement 8. Grade for hepatic encephalopathy with experience of drowsiness and grossly impaired calculation ability. 17. Koilonychia is due to deficiency of ___________? A. Grade 0 D. Grade 3 A. Iron D. Water B. Grade 1 E. Grade 4 B. Vitamin B12 E. Vitamin C C. Grade 2 C. Calcium 18. Example of a Scale skin lesion: A. Research D. Patient care B. Wellness E. Expansion A, Hives D. Mouth sore C. Education B. Dandruff E. Wart C. Measles rash 27. Type of questioning: “What medication do you take for a headache?” 19. Which benzodiazepine is LEAST to be used among elderly patients? A. Direct Questioning D. Open-ended B. Indirect Questioning E. Close-ended A. Diazepam D. Lorazepam C. Probing B. Oxazepam E. Clonazepam C. Alprazolam 28. “Spell WORLD backwards” is an example of a test for what area of mental state? 20. First-line treatment for Myoclonic seizures: A. Orientation D. Registration A. Phenobarbital D. Valproate B. Attention E. Language B. Acetazolamide E. Topiramate C. Recall C. Phenytoin 29. Which information is under the Demographic 21. A patient is diagnosed with parkinsonian syndrome if database? patient has bradykinesia, plus one or more of the following: A. Patient Identification Number B. Physician and prescribers A. Classic rest tremor D. B and C C. Occupation B. Muscular rigidity E. A, B, and C D. Personality type C. Postural instability E. Ethnic background 22. These are orders for in-patients in hospitals and 30. Volunteer service belongs to which department in the other institutions written by physicians on forms: hospital? A. Physician’s Order Sheet D. Recipe A. Pharmacy service B. Prescription E. Patient’s Chart B. Medical Library C. Medication Order C. Business office D. Medical Social Service 23. The following are types of information under social/ E. Administrative economic database, EXCEPT: 31. When using the standardized outline approach, A. Daily activities D. Sexual History which of the following is NOT followed when writing B. Ethnic background E. A and D Progress Notes? C. Living arrangement A. Subjective data 24. “Health is a state of complete physical, mental, and B. Objective data social well-being and not merely the absence of disease C. Recommendation or infirmity.” This condition is according to which model? D. Impression E. None of these A. Environmental model D. Medical model B. Wellness model E. All of these 32. The question “Are agents available in commercial C. World Health Organization model formulation?” represents which request classification for drug information? 25. Patients of psychiatric conditions usually stay in which type of hospital? A. Adverse Drug Reaction B. Availability A. Non-governmental C. Compounding/ Formulation B. General D. Identification C. Long-term E. Compatibility/ Stability D. 400-499 bed-capacity E. Short-term 33. When looking for information regarding method of administration, which of the following drug information 26. Which function of the hospital is geared towards the sources may be the most useful? improvement of hospital services and advancement of medical knowledge against disease? A. Drug Facts and Comparisons B. RPS C. Goodman and Gilman’s Pharmacological Basis of 40. The USP contains nomograms for estimating body Therapeutics surface area (BSA) for both children and adults. Which D. Martindale: The Complete Drug Reference of the following measurements must be known in order E. USP DI to use the nomogram? 34. If the answer to the question “Do you cough up A. Age and height D. Height and weight blood?” is negative, which of the following is to be noted B. Age and weight E. Weight and sex that the patient denied of? C. Height and creatinine clearance A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea 41. Which of the following is a comprehensive, unbiased B. Hemoptysis source of current information on drugs often used as C. Shortness of breath hospital nursing stations, and serves as a basis for D. Exertional SOB pharmacists to extend their role as pharmaceutical E. Rales consultants to the medical profession? 35. This is an important tool for assuring the quality of A. Minimum Standard for Pharmacies in Hospitals drug use and controlling its cost in an institution such as B. Mirror to Hospital Pharmacy the hospital. C. International Pharmaceutical Abstracts D. American Journal of Health-System Pharmacy A. Essential drug list E. Drug Information B. Formulary system C. Formulary 42. Which class of stock system consists of a D. P&T Committee predetermined list of medications that are usually used E. Core list in large quantities and are prepackaged in standardized containers? 36. A facility where ambulatory patients are seen for appointments and treated by a group of physicians A. Unit-dose system practicing together. B. Charge floor stock C. Free floor stock A. Long-term health care facility D. Inpatient prescription system B. Clinic E. Coordinated control system C. Hospital D. County hospital 43. Aside from Policy Development, what is the other E. Resident treatment facility primary purpose of the P & T committee? 37. Which of the following belongs to the business A. Operation D. Education management or administrative side of the hospital? B. Organization E. Drug Administration C. Community Health A. Medical Records B. Medical Library 44. Water for injection is an example of drugs dispensed C. Biomedical Engineering in which type of stock system? D. Pharmacy Service E. Dietary and Nutrition Service A. Unit dose system B. Charge floor stock 38. Which of the following statements regarding C. Free floor stock questioning strategies for the pharmacist-patient D. Inpatient prescription system encounter is CORRECT? E. Coordinated control system A. Probing questions are assertive and aggressive. 45. Which of the following drug information may not be B. Precise information may be obtained using the close- found in Physician’s Desk Reference? ended questions. C. Open-ended questions are for narrow-focused A. Lactation D. Dosage answers. B. Drug of choice E. Product availability D. Direct questions encourages patient to elaborate. C. ADR E. All except A 46. Which of the following journals cover medical news 39. Which of the following body areas is last in the and original articles? sequence followed for physical examination? A. Drug Information Journal A. HEENT D. Neurological System B. Archives of Internal Medicine B. Genitals E. Lower extremities C. New England Journal of Medicine C. Rectum D. Medical Letter E. Annals of Pharmacotherapy A. Subjective D. Plan B. Objective E. Either A or B 47. Which of the following describes a medium intensity C. Assessment of feeling, which can be used in a medical interview? 55. Which one of the following is useful in the diagnosis A. Marvelous D. Blue and monitoring of liver disease? B. Upset E. Gloomy C. Distraught A. Amylase B. Hematocrit 48. The following statements regarding arterial blood C. Hemoglobin gases are true, EXCEPT: D. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin E. Bilirubin A. Alveolar hyperventilation if PaCo2 serotonin C.Arginine -> nitric oxide D. Methionine -> purine/pyrimidine E. Tyrosine -> dopamine 79. Which one of the following statements concerning a 1 week old male infant with undetected classic phenylketonuria is correct? A. Tyrosine is a nonessential amino acid for the infant B. High levels of phenylpyruvate appear in his urine C. Theraphy must begin within the first year of life D. A diet devoid of phenylalanine should be initiated immediately E. When the infant reaches adulthood, it is recommended that diet theraphy be discontinued 80. The structure of porphyrin is shown below. Which cyclic organic molecule is present on th structure? A. Indole B. Pyrrole C. Quinolone D. Pyridine E. Piperidine 81. The most prevalent metalloporphyrin in humans is heme. It serves as a prosthetic group for: A.Cytochrome B.Hemoglobin C. Peroxidase D. All of these E. A and B 82. Inherited (or occasionally acquired) defect is heme synthesis may result to: A. Porphyria B. Phenylketonuria C.Methemoglobinemia D. Lead poisoning E.Albinism 83. What is the approximate number of days of red blood cells to be in the circulation before degradation? A. 40 days B. 80 days C. 120 days D. 150 days E. 365 days 84. Bilirubin and biliverdin are examples of: A. Bile salts B. Bile pigments C.Bile duct D. All of these E. None of these 85. Certain anionic drugs, such as salicylates and sulfonamides, can displace bilirubin from albumin, permitting bilirubin to enter the central nervous system. This cause the potential ffor neural damage in infants known as: A.Saint Louis Encephalitis B. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus C.Steven-johnson’s syndrome D. Kernicterus E. All of these 86. Van de Bergh reaction determines the concentration o: A.Protein B. Bilirubin C. Heme D. Glucose E. Cholesterol 87. The following are atecholamines, EXCEPT: A. Epinephrine B. Norepinephrine C. Acetylcholine D. Dopamine E. None of these 88.What organic polymer protects underlying cell from the harmful effects of sunlight? A. Melanin B. Keratin C. Collagen D. Catecholamines E. Heme 89. The 4D symptoms of pellagra include: diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia and death. This is due to the deficiency of: A. Niacin B. Tyrosine C. Trytophan D. A and C E. A and B 90. Trytophan i.One-letter representation is “T” ii. Non polar molecule iii. Deficiency of which can cause Hartup disease iv. The structure contains phenol side chain A. I & II are correct B. I,II, and III are correct C. II and III are correct D. I,II,III and IV are correct E.I,II,III and IV incorrect 91. What is the isoelectric point (pl) of arginine? A. 7.87 B. 5.55 C. 10.75 D. 7.3 E. 11.8 92. Estimate the isoelectic point of the structure (reaction mechanism) given below. A. 2 B. 9 C. 6 D. 5 E. 7 93.Which of the following secondary derived proteins have highest molecular weight characteristic? A. Proteoses B. Peptones C. Peptides D.A and B E. B and C 94. Tyrosine can be detected by: A Xanthoproteic test B. Millon’s test C. Sakaguchi test D. A,B and C E. A and B 95. Hopkin’s cole reaction gives positive result in: A. Gelatin B. Collagen C. Tryptophan D. A and B E. B and C 96.Which of the following is an essential amino acid in man? A. Tyrosine B. Proline C. Aspartate D. Threonine E. Serine 97: Which of the following amino acids is NOT basic? A. Lysine B. Arginine C. Ornithine D. Glutamine E.Histidine 98. Which of the following bonds is not affected by denaturation due to its high stability? A. Disulfide bond B. Peptide bond C.Hydrogen bond/ D. Ionic bond E. None of these 99. Arginine and histidine are: A. Essential amino acid B. Non essential amino acid C. Semi-essential amino acid D. Acidic amino acid E. Aromatic amino acid 100. A tripeptide involved in cellular oxidation-reduction, and is required for maintaining the integrity of RBC and lens of eyes. A. Glutathione B. Vasopressin C. Encephalin D. Oxytocin E. Retinol 101. Which of the following is true about the central dogma of molecular biology? A. Genetic information found in DNA is copied and transmitted to daughter cells through DNA replication. B. Transcription is involved in RNA synthesis C. The code contained in the nucleotide sequence of messenger RNA molecules is translated to complete gene expression. D. All of these E. A and B 102. Which of the following not true about DNA structure? A. Phosphodiester bonds stabilize the DNA structure B. In the double helix, the chains are paired in a parallel manner C. Uracil is always paired with a thymine and a cytosine is always paired with a guanine D. A and B E. B and C 103. A rule which states that "in any sample of DNA, the amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine, the amount of guanine equals the amount of cytosine, and the total amount of purines equals the total amount of pyrimidines.” A. Zaitsev’s rule B. Hund’s rule C. VSEPR rule D. Chargaff’s rule E. Markovnikov’s rule 104. Which of the following structural forms of DNA is right handed? A. B-DNA B. Z-DNA C. A-DNA D. A and B E. A and C 105. Most species of bacteria also contain small, circular, extrachromosomal DNA molecules called plasmids, which may carry genes that convey A. Antibiotic resistance B. Antibaterial effect C. Mutagenic effect D Antigenicity E. Transcription 106. When the two strands of the DNA double helix is separated, each can serve as a template for the replication of a new complementary strand. This produces two daughter molecules, each of which contains two DNA strands with an antiparallel orientation. This describes: A. Conservative replication B. Semiconservative replication C. Dispersive replication D. Antigenicity E. Transcription 107. Human topoisomerase II is targeted by: A. Etoposide B. Ciprofloxacin C. Penicillin D. Vancomycin E. Chloramphenicol 108. The strand that is being copied in the direction away from the replication fork, and is synthesize discountinuously, with small fragments of DNA being copied near the replication fork. A. Leading strand B. Lagging strand C. RNA primer D. Single strand E. Double strand 109. Which of the following rRNA size particles is not present in prokaryotes? A. 23S B. 15S C. 5S D. 40S E. 50S 110. Which nitrogenous base is not present in RNA structure? A. Cytosine B. Uracil C. Thymine D. Adenine E. Guanine 111. Ribonucletotide contains: A. Ribose B. Nitrogenous base C. Phosphate D. All of these E. None of these 112. Which of the consequence of point mutation is expected to happen in the codon transition of UCA to UCU? Use the genetic code table below for your reference. A. Silent mutation B. Missense mutation C. Nonsense mutation D. Spontaneous mutation E. Frameshift mutation 113. A hereditary disease that primarily affects the pulmonary and digestive systems, most commonly caused by deletion of three nucleotides from the coding region of a gene, resulting in the loss of phenylalanine at the 508th position in the protein encoded by that gene. A. Cystic fibrosis B. Crohn’s disease C. H.pylori infection D. Ulcerative colitis E. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 114. This states that the first (5’) base of the anticodon is not as spatially defined as the other two bases. Movement of that first base allows nontraditional base-pairing with the last (3’) base of the codon, thus allowing a single tRNA to recognize more than one codon for a specific amino acid A. Chargaff’s rule B. Wobble hypothesis C. Shine-Dalgamo sequence D. Semiconservative E. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 115. Many antimicrobials inhibits protein translation. Which of the following antimicrobials is correctly paired with is mechanism of action? A. Tetracyclines – inhibits peptidyltransferase B. Diphtheria toxin – binds to the 30S subunits C. Puromycin – inactivates EF-2 D. Erythromycin – binds with 50S ribosomal subunits E. Clindamycin – binds to the 30S ribosomal subunits 116. The movement of the uncharged tRNA from the P to the E site (before being released), and movement of the peptidyl tRNA from the A to the P site is termed as: A. Transcription B. Translation C. Translocation D. Transformation E. Transferin 117. Thymine structure 118. In DNA double helix, which of the following is not true? A. Guanine base pairs with cytosine B. Adenine on one chain forms a base pair with uracil on the other chain C. The chains are antiparallel D. Each DNA molecule is composed of twi polynucleotide chain joined by hydrogen bonds between bases E. The double-stranded molecule is twisted to form a helix with major and minor grooves 119. Which of the following statements regarding DNA denaturation is incorrect? A. Alkali can cause DNA breakage B. Heat can cause DNA separation C. Heat and alkali can break phosphodiester bonds D. A and B E. All of these 120. In DNA replication, what enzyme acts to prevent the extreme supercoiling of the parental helix that would result as consequence of unwinding at a replication fork? A. Topoisomerase B. RNA polymerase C. Helicases D. Isomerases E. Proteolytic enzymes 121. Phase of eukaryotic cell cycle involving DNA (replication) synthesis A. G1 phase B. G2 phase C. G0 phase D. S phase E. M phase 122. The deficiency results in an inability to salvage hypoxanthine or guanine, from which excessive amounts of uric acid are produced A. Hurler syndrome/ B. Sanfilippo syndrome C. Gaucher’s disease D. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome E. Forbes’ disease 123. Uric acid A. May be derived from hypoxanthine B. May be derived from guanine C. The end product of protein metabolism/ D. A and B E. A, B and C 124. What ribosomal tRNA acts as a binding site of an incoming amoniacyl-tRNA? A. E site B. P site C. A site D. A and C are correct E. B and C are correct 125. Where is the cellular location of ribosomes? A. Cytosol B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum D. A and B E. B and C 126. A rare hereditary defect of the enzyme system where the cells cannot repair the damage DNA, resulting in extensive accumulation of mutation and, consequently, early and numerous skin cancers. A. Basal cell carcinoma B. Psoriasis C. Xeroderma pigmentosum D. Necrotizing fascilitis E. Lepromatosus leprosy 127. Which of the following statements best describes carbohydrates? A. Least abundant organic molecules in nature B. Provide a significant fraction of the dietary calories for most organisms C. Structural component of many organisms D. All of these E. B and C 128. Which of the following is not a disaccharide? A. Sucrose B. Trehalose C. Cellobiose D. Mannose E. Lactose 129. Which of the following are isomers? A. Fructose and glucose B. Glucose and mannose C. Mannose and galactose D. All of these E. A and C 130. The D- and an L-sugar designation of monosaccharide are: A. Tautomers B. Enantiomers C. Monomers D. Epimers E. Anomers 131. Alpha-D-glucopyranose and beta-D-glucopyranose are: A. Enantiomers B. Diasteromers C. Anomers D. A and C E. B and C 132. Which of the following polysaccharides is/are derived from plant sources? A. Cellulose B. Glycogen C. Starch D. All choices are correct E. A and C 133. Which of the following is not true about lactose? A. Reducing sugar B. With alpha-1,4 glycosidic linkage C. Contains fructose and galactose D. A and B E. B and C 134. The final product of carbohydrate digestion is: A. Glucose B. Galactose C. Fructose D. All of these E. A and B 135. Which of the following statements is true? I. Digestion of carbohydrates begins in the mouth II. Further digestion of carbohydrate by pancreatic enzyme can occur on the small intestine III. Final carbohydrate digestion by enzymes synthesized by the intestinal mucosa cells A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II E. I,II and III 136. Lactose intolerance is present among: A. Lactase-deficient people B. Sucrase-deficient people C. Isomaltase-deficient people D. All of these E. None of these 137. Disaccharides, oligosaccharides and polysaccharides contains monomer sugar units which are linked by what bond? A. Hydrogen bond B. Phosphodiester bond C. Glycosidic bond D. Disulfide bond E. Hydrophobic bond 138. Which of the following statements best describes glucose? A. It is a ketose and usually exists as a furanose ring B. It is a C-4 epimer of galactose C. It is utilized in biological systems only in the L-isometric form D. It is a product from dietary starch by the action of alpha-amylase E. Homopolysaccharides of glucose, formed by the action of glycosyltransferase, are always branched molecules that contain only beta-glycosidic linkages 139. Clinitest is a nonspecific test that produce a change in color id urine is positive in reducing substances. Which of the following sugars is not detected by this test? A. Xylulose B. Fructose C. Sucrose D. Galactose E. Glucose 140. What effect should drugs like acarbose and miglitol have on the digestion of lactose? A. Lactose intolerant B. Diarrhea C. Lactose digestion D. A and B E. None of these 141. Catabolic reaction I. Breakdown of complex molecules II. Exergonic reactions III. Exemplified by glycolysis and glycogenolysis A. I only B. I and II C. I and III D. I, II and III E. II and III 142. Evaluate the two statements: (I) Pyruvate is the end product of glycolysis in cells with mitochondria and an adequate supply of oxygen. (II) the conversion of glucose to lactate is called anaerobic glycolysis because it can occur without the participation of oxygen. A. Only I is correct B. Only II is correct C. I and II are correct D. I and II are incorrect 143. The enzyme that may add or remove phosphate group of sugar is called: A. Hexokinase B. PFK C. Pyruvate kinase D. All of these E. A and C 144. The enzyme that function as a glucose sensor in the maintenance of blood glucose homeostasis. A. Glucokinase B. Hexokinase D C. Fructokinase D. A and B E. All of these 145. Glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate conversion requires: A. Isomerization B. Carbon removal C. Water removal D. Carbon division E. A and C 146. Cleavage of fructose 1,6-biphosphate is made by: A. Hexokinase B. Aldolase C. Enolase D. Isomerase E. Pyruvate kinase 147. Which of the following involves oxidation-reduction reaction? A. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to 1,3-biphosphoglycerate B. PEP to pyruvate C. Glucose to glucose 6-phosphate D. DHA to glyceraldehydes E. Glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate 148. The kinase enzyme in glycolysis are physiologically reversible, EXCEPT: A. Hexokinase B. Type IV hexokinase C. Pyruvate kinase D. Phosphoglycerate kinase E. Phosphofructokinase 149. In glycolysis, what is the role of phosphoglycerate mutase? A. Shift of the phosphate group from carbon 3 to carbon 2 B. Dehydration of 2-phosphoglycerate C. Formation of pyruvate producing ATP D. Oxidation of glyceraldehyde 3 –phosphate E. Isomerization of dihydroxyacetone phosphate 150. What is the second most common cause of enzyme deficiency related non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia? A. Pyuvate dehydrogenase deficiency B. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency C. Morquio syndrome D. Pyruvate kinase deficiency E. Sickle cell anemia 151. Anaerobic glycolysis: I. Pyruvate is the end product II. Generates 2 ATP per glucose III. Produces 1 NADH A. Only I is correct B. Only II is correct C. Only III is correct D. I and III are correct E. I,II and III are correct 152. What is the major fuel for the TCA cycle? A. Pyruvate B. Acetyl CoA C. PEP D. Lactate E. Oaloacatate 153. A person in a fasting state has I. Increase of blood glucose II. Increase of release of glucagon III. Decrease of insulin A. I only B. I and II C. II and III D. III only E. I, II and III 154. What is the final pathway where the oxidative metabolism of carbohydrates, amino acids and fatty acids take place? A. Kreb’s cycle B. Glycolysis C. Urea cycle D. HMP shunt E. Oxidative phosphorylation 155. Aldol condensation of acetyl CoA and oxaloacetate yields A. Citrate B. Isocitrate C. Fumarate D. Malate E. Succinate 156. The conversion of citrate to isocitrate requires... A. Dehydroganese B. Aconitase C. Fumarase D. Aldolase E. Kinase 157. How much NADH are produced in TCA cycle? A. 1 NADH B. 2 NADH C. 3 NADH D. 12 NADH E. 6-8 NADH 158. How many ATP molecules are produced from the oxidation of one molecule of acetyl CoA? A. 6-8 ATPs B. 12 ATPs C. 24 ATPs D. 36-38 ATPs E. 129 ATPs 159. Which of the following reactions produce NADH? A. Oxidation and decarboxylation of isocitrate B. Oxidative decarboxylation of a-ketoglutarate C. Oxidation of Malate D. A and B E. All of these 160. In Kreb’s cycle, How many NADH, FADH2 and GTP are produced in one round of cycle? A. 2 NADH, 2 FADH2, and 2 GTP B. 1 NADH, 3 FADH2, and 3 GTP C. 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 1 GTP D. 3 NADH, 2 FADH2. and 1 GTP E. 4 NADH, 0 FADH2, and 2 GTP 161. Oxidation of acetyl CoA yields... A. Carbon dioxide B. Water C. Glucose D. A and B E. A and C 162. The lactid cycle is also known as: A. Kreb’s cycle B. Gluconeogenesis C. Cori’s cycle D. Urea cycle E. Water cycle 163. Which of the following may serve as precursor for gluconeogenesis? A. Lactate B. Glycerol C. Glucogenic amino acid D. A and C E. All of these 164. Seven glycolytic reactions are reversible and are used in the synthesis of glucose from lactate or pyruvate. In glyconeogenesis, however, some reactions are irreversible and must be circumveted by alternate reactions that are energetically favor the synthesis of glucose. This gluconeogenesis reactions include: I. Carboxylation of pyruvate II. Decarboxylation of oxaloatate III. Dephosphorylation of fructose 1,6-biosphate IV. Dephosphorylation of gluvose 6-biosphate A. I and II B. I and III C. I, II, and III D. I, II, III, and I E. II, III, and IV 165. The synthesis of glucose from pyruvate by gluconeogenesis: A. Occurs exclusively in the cytosol B. In inhibited by an elevated level of glucagon C. Requires participation of biotin D. Involves lactate as an intermediate E. Requires the oxidation/reduction of FAD 166. Which one of the following reactions is unique to gluconeogenesis? A. Lactate – Pyruvate B. Phosphoenolpyruvate – pyruvate C. Oxaloacetate – phosphoenolpyruvate D. Glucoso 6-phosphate – fructose 6-phosphate E. 1,3-bis-phosphoglycerate – 3-phosphoglycerate 167. The main stores of glycogen in the body are found in the: A. Skeletal muscle B. Liver C. Kidney D. A and B E. B and C 168. Glycogen is a branched-chain polysaccharide made exclusively from a-D-glucose. Glucose units are mainly linked by: A. a(1-4) Linkage B. a(1-6) Linkage C. B(1-4) Linkage D. A and B E. B and C 169. Evaluate the two statements (1) Glycogenesis is synthesis of glycogen (2) Glycosis is degration of glycogen. A. Only I is correct B. Only II is correct C. I and II are correct D. I and II are incorrect 170. Evaluate the two statements (1) Glycogenesis accelerates during periods when the body has been well fed (2) Glycogenesis accelerates during periods of fasting. A. Only I is correct B. Only II is correct C. I and II are correct D. I and II are incorrect 171. An elevated insulin level results in: I. Increased glycogenesis II. Decreased glycogenesis III. Elevated glucagon (or epinephrine) A. I only B. I and II C. I and III D. II and III E. I, II and III 172. Pompe’s disease is A. Lysosomal storage disease B. Glycogen storage disease C. Type II GSD D. All of these E. B and C 173. Increased ingestion of glucose leads to: I. Increased blood glucose II. Increased glucagon III. Increased insulin A. Only I is correct B. Only II is correct C. I and II are correct D. I and II are incorrect 174. A deficiency of the phosphatate causes glycogen storage disease type 1a. This disease results in an inability of the liver to provide free glucose to the body during a fast. A. Von Glerke’s disease B. Pompe’s disease C. Cori’s disease D. Anderson’s disease E. McArdle’s disease 175. Which of the following pairs is incorrect? A. Type 1b GSD: Cori’s disease B. Type II GSD: Pompe’s disease C. Tybe III GSD: Cori’s disease D. Type V: McArdle’s disease E. Type VI: Her’s disease 176. The most common monosaccharide consumed by humans: A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Ribose D. Mannose E. Arabinose 177. High-fructose corn syrup typically contains: A. 90% fructose and 10% galactose B. 55% fructose and 45% glucose C. 90% fructose and 10% glucose D. 50% fructose and 50% glucose E. 55% galactose and 45% glucose 178. What enzyme is deficient from essential fructosuria? A. Fructokinase B. Aldolase A C. Aldolase B D. Aldolase C E. Hexokinase 179. What is the major carbohydrate energy source of sperm cells? A. Glucose B. Sorbitol C. Ribose D. Fructose E. Mannose 180. Galactose I. Major dietary source is milk II. C-2 epimer with glucose III. Detected by muric acid test A. I only B. I and II C. I and III D. II and III E. I, II and III 181. Following the intravenous injection of lactose into a rat, none of the lactose is metabolized. However, ingestion of lactose leads to rapid metabolism of this disaccharide. The difference in these observations is a result of: A. Presence of lactose in the serum B. The absence of hepatic galactokinase C.The absence of maltase in the serum. D. The presence of lactase in the intestine E. None of these 182. Pentose phosphate pathway A. Hexose monophosphate pathway B. 6-phosphogluconate pathway C. Occurs in cytosol D. All choices are correct. E. A and C 183. An inherited disease characterized by hemolytic anemia cause by the inability to detoxify oxidizing agents. A. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydroganese deficiency B. Glucose 6-phosphate deficiency C. Gaucher’s disease D. Krabbe’s disease E.Glycogen storage disease 184. In preparation for a trip to an area of India where malaria is epidemic, A young man is given primaquine prophylactically. Soon thereafter, He develops a hemolytic condition. The most likely cause of the hemolysis is a less-than-normal level of which of the following? A. Glucose 6-phosphate B.Oxidized form of NAD C. Reduced form of glutathione D. Ribose 5-phosphate E. Ribulose 5-phosphate 185. These are long, unbranched, hetero polysaccharide chains generally composed of a repeating disaccharide unit. A. Glycoproteins B. Glycosaminoglycans C. Metaloproteins D. Lipopolysaccharides E. Carbohydrates. 186. The most abundant glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) in the body A. Chondroitin sulfate B. Keratin sulfates C. Hyaluronic acid D. Dematan sulfates E. Herapin 187. Which of the following pairs is correct about muccpolysaccharidoses (MPS)? A. Hurler syndrome: MPS I B. Hunter syndrome: MPS II C. Sly syndrome: MPS III D. A and B E. B and C 188. Muccpolysaccharidoses are inherited lysosomal storage diseases. They are caused by: A. An increased rate of synthesis of the carbohydrate component of proteoglycans B. The synthesis of polysaccharides with an altered structure. C. Defects in the degradation of GAGs in the proteoglycans D. The synthesis of abnormally small amounts of protein cones E. An insufficient of proteolytuc enzymes 189. Which of the following is a cellular defense against reactive oxygen species (ROS)? A. Superoxide dismutase B. Catalase C. Glutathione peroxidase D. A and B E. A,B and C 190. Evaluate the two statements (1) Conversion of FMN to FMNH2 requires oxidation (2) Conversion of NADH to NAD+ requires reduction. A. Only I is correct B. Only II is correct C. I and II are correct D. I and II are incorrect 191. A theory that explains how the free energy generated by the transport of electricity by the electron transport chain is used to produce ATP from ADP + Pi A. Chemiomotic theory B. Mitchell hyphothesis C. Archimedis law D. Noyes-whitney equation E. A and B 192. In electron transport train, the transport (“pumping”) of protons (H+) across the inner mitochondria membrane from the matrix to the intermembrane space does not happen at: A. Complex I B. Complex II C. Complex III D. Complex IV E. A and C 193. Leber hereditary optic neuropathy is an example of A. Mitochondrial mutation B. Nuclear mutation C. Ribosomal mutation D. Cytosolic mutation E. Oxidative mutation 194. Adenosine Triphosphate I. Contains the base adenine, the sugar ribose, and three phosphate groups joined each other by two anhydride bonds II. Produced from adenosine diphosphate(ADP) and inorganic phosphate (Pi) mainly by the process of substrate phosphorylation. III. Plays a central role in energy exchanges in your body A. Only I is correct B. Only II is correct C. I and II are correct D. I and II are incorrect 195. NADH and/or FADH2 are produced by... A. Glycolysis B. TCA cycle C. B-oxidation of fatty acids D. A and B E. All of these 196. Which of the following complexes is incorrectly paired? A. Complex I: NADH dehydroganese B. Complex II: Succinate dehydroganese C. Complex III: cytochrome b-c1 complex D. Complex IV: cytochrome oxidase E. Complex V: ADP synthase 197. For each pair of electrons that enters the chain from NADH, how many protons are pumped out of the mitochondria? A. 10 protons B. 6 protons C. 8 protons D. 12 protons E. 24 protons 198. In electron transport chain, which complex is blocked by either carbon monoxide or cyanide? A. Complex I B. Complex II C. Complex III D. Complex IV E. Complex V 199. A leading cause of blindness, which is due to, overtime, oxidative damage to the retinal pigment epithelium, such that the brain no longer processes light correctly. A. Macular degeneration B. Astigmatism C. Diplopia D. Nearsightedness E. Farsightedness 200. The following are non-enzymatic antioxidants (free-radical scavengers) EXCEPT: A. Vitamin E B. Vitamin C C. Carotenoids D. Flavonoids E. Vitamin K 201. The most potent ROS A. Hydrogen peroxide B. Hydroxyl radical C. Superoxide D. Coenzyme Q E. Nitric oxide 202. Metformin is the standard fist-line oral medication for type 2 diabetes. The use of the drug has the potential side effect of lactic acidosis. Which of the following explains why this lactic acid build up is rarely seen clinically? A. The red blood cells utilize the lactate as fuel. B. The renal cell utilizes the lactate as fuel C. The cardiac muscle cells utilize the lactate as fuel. D. The large, voluntary muscle groups utilize the lactate as fuel. E. The lactate directly enters the TCA cycle to be oxidized. 203. A contestant on a TV reality show, in which the contestant had to survive off the land for a extended period of time, developed recurrent diarrhea, dermatitis and had trouble remembering things. These symptoms could be brought about due to lack of which one of the following in the contestant’s diet? A. Niacin B. Thiamine C. Riboflavin D. Vitamin C E. Vitamin D 204. The following contains glucose, EXCEPT: A. Glycogen B. Triacylglycerol C. Glycoprotein D. Glycolipid E. Ceramide 205. Lipid are: I. Water-insoluble organic molecules II. Can be extracted from tissues by polar solvent III. Major source of energy for the body A. I only B. I and II C. II and III D. I and III E. I, II and III 206. Which of the following is true with regard to digestion of biomolecules? A. Protein digestion starts in the mouth B. Carbohydrate digestion begins in the stomach C. Lipid digestion begins in the stomach D. A and B E. B and C 207. What anti-obesity agent inhibits both gastric and pancreatic lipases? A. Colestipol B. Simvastatin C. Orlistat D. Niacin E. Gemfibrozil 208. Which hormone/s control/s lipid digestion? I. Insulin II. Incretin III. Secretin IV. Cholescytokinin A. I and II only B. II and III only C. III and IV only D. I,II and III E. I, II,III and IV 209. These are disk shaped clusters of amphipathic lipids that coalesce with their hydrophobic groups on the inside and their hydrophilic groups on the outside. A. Micelles B. Aggregates C. Coalesce D. Chylomicron E. Liposomes 210. A rare, autosomal recessive disorder cause by a deficiency of lipoprotein lipase resulting to chylomicronemia and hypertriacylglycerolemia. A. Type 1 hyperlipoproteinemia B. Type IIa familial hypercholesterolemia C. Familial dysbetalipoproteinemia D. Familial hypertriglyceridemia E. Tangier disease 211. Which of the following fatty acids is a dietary essential in normal humans? A. Linolenic acid B. Linoleic acid C. Arachidonic acid D. A and B E. B and C 212. Which of the following contains omega-3 on its structure? A. Linolenic acid B. Linoleic acid C. Arachidonic acid D. Palmitic acid E. Arachidic acid 213. A teenager, concerned about his weight, attempts to maintain a fat-free diet for a period of several weeks. If his ability to synthesize various lipids were examined, he would be found to be most deficient in his ability to synthesize: A. Triacylglycerol B. Phospholipids C. Cholesterol D. Sphingolipids E. Prostaglandins 214. The oxidation of a molecule of palmitoyl CoA to CO2 and H2O produces: A. 8 acetyl CoA,7 NADH and 7 FADH2 B. 16 acetyl CoA, 16 NADH and 16 FADH2 C. 7 acetyl CoA, 8 NADH and 8 FADH2 D. 8 acetyl CoA, 8 NADH and 8 FADH2 E. 7 acetyl CoA, 7 NADH and 7 FADH2 215. The major supplier of NADPH for fatty acid synthesis: A. HMP shunt B. Pentose phosphate pathway C. Electron transport chain D. A and B E. A, B and C 216. Destruction of fatty acid chain happens in the: A. Ribosome B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C. Nucleus D. Cytoplasm E. Mitochondrion 217. Evaluate the two statements: (1) if a species of acylglycerol is solid at room temperature, it is called a “fat” (2) if liquid, it is called an “oil”. A. Only 1 is correct B. Only 2 is correct C. Both 1 and 2 are correct D. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect 218. The yield from the complete oxidation of fatty acids to CO2 and H2O A. 9 kcal/g B. 4kcal/g C. 7.1kcal/g D. 3.4 kcal/g E. None of these 219. The most common inborn error of fatty acid oxidation A. medium chain fatty acyl CoA dehydrogenase (MCAD) deficiency B. Carnithine deficiency C. Methylmalonyl CoA mutase deficiency D. Zellweger syndrome E. X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy 220. Acetoacetate, 3-hydroxybutyrate, and acetone are example of: A. Ketone bodies B. Ketogenic amino acids C. Glucogenic amino acids D. Ketose sugar E. Aldose sugar 221. Excessive production of ketone bodies in diabetes mellitus leads to: A. Ketonemia B. Ketonuria C. Ketoacidosis D. A and B E. A, B and C 222. Phospholipids I. Amphipathic II. Have hydrophilic bond III. Have a hydrophobic tail A. Only I is correct B. I and II are correct C. I, II and III are correct D. Only III is correct E. I, II and III are correct 223. Phospholipids that contain glycerol are called: A. Glycerophospholipids B. Phosphoglycerides C. Glycealdehydes D. Glycerin phosphate E. A and B 224. Which of the following is correctly paired? I. Serine + PA -> phosphatigylserine II. Ethanolamine + PA -> cephalin III. Choline + PA -> lecithin IV. Inositol + PA -> phosphatidylinositol A. I and IV B. I and II C. II and III D. I, II and III E. I, II, III, and IV 225. A long chain fatty acid attached to the amino group of sphingosine through an amide linkage is known as: A. Ceramide B. Cerebroside C. Ganglioside D. Sulfatide E. Lipopolysaccharide 226. What is the role of phosphatidylcholine in the lungs? A. Surfactant B. Prevents osmosis C. Antimicrobial D. Neurotransmitter E. All of these 227. Two molecules of phophatidic acid connected by amolecule of glycerol A. Lecithin B. Inositol C. Cardiolipin D. Cephalin E. Phosphatidylethanolamine 228. Glucocorticoid (for example,cortisol) inhibit: A. Phospholipase A1 B. Phospholipase A2 C. Phospholipase C D. Phospholipase D E. Fatty acyl CoA transferase 229. An autosomal recessive disease caused by in the inability to degrade sphingomyelin leading to severe mental retardation and neurodegeneration and death in early childhood. A. Nieman-pick disease B. Farber’s disease C. Farby’s disease D. Gaucher’s disease E. Tay-sach’s disease 230. Which of the following is not present in lactosylceramide? A. Sphingosine B. Fatty acid C. Glucose C. Galactose E. Ganglioside 231. The most common lysosomal storage disease A. Niemann-pick disease B. Farber disease C. Farby’s disease D. Gaucher’s disease E. Tey-sach’s disease 232. The following are eicosanoids, EXCEPT: A. Prostaglandin B. Thromboxanes C. Leukotrienes D. Palmitic acid E. Arachidonic acid 233. Which of the following is correct with regarding prostaglandin? I. Regulate smooth muscle contraction II. Regulate blood vessel diameter III. Mediator of inflammatory response IV. Stimulate gastric acid synthesis A. I only B. I and II C. I, II and III D. I and III E. I,II,III and IV 234. Evaluate the two statement: (1) linolenic acid is a dietary precursor of prostaglandin. (2) arachidonic acid is a immediate precursor of the predominant class of prostaglandin. A. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect B. 1 is incorrect, 2 correct C. 1 and 2 are correct D. 1 and 2 are incorrect 235. Two isoenzyme of PGH synthase are known. Which is the inducible form? A. COX 1 B. COX 2 C. LOX D. A and B E. A and C 236. Which of the following NSAIDs is a specific inhibitor of COX-2 isoenzyme? A. Aspirin B. Indomethacin C. Phenylbutazone D. Celecoxib E. Mefenamic acid 237. Which of the following is correct about leukotrienes? I. Mediators of allergic response and inflammation II. Their synthesis is affected bu NSAIDs III. Aspirin-induced asthma is a response to overproduction to leukotrienes with NSAID use A. I and II B. I and III C. III only D. II and III E. I, II, and III 238.The use of celecoxib to increase the risk of: A. Hypertension B. Heart attack C. Kidney failure D. Atherosclerosis E. Diabetes mellitus 239. Aspirin-induced asthma (AIA) is a severe reaction to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) characterized by bronchoconstriction 30 minutes to several hours after ingestion. It is seen in as many as 20 % of adults. Which of the following statements best explains the symptoms seen in patients with AIA? A. NSAIDs inhibit the activity of the CFTR protein, resulting in thickened secretion that block airways. B. NSAIDs inhibit COX but not lipoxygenase, resulting in the flow of arachidonic acid to leukotriene synthesis. C. NSAIDs activates the COX activity of PGH synthase, resulting in increased synthesis of prostaglandins that promote vasodilation. D. NSAIDs activate phospholipases, resulting in decreased amounts of dipalmytoylphosphatidycholine and alveolar collapse. E. NSAIDs inhibit both COX and LOX enzyme and the asthma attack is due to allergic response to various antigens. 240. The following are true about cholesterol, EXCEPT: A. Cholesterol is a structural component of all cell membrane B. Cholesterol is a precursor of bile acids and vitamin C. C. Liver plays a central role in the regulation of the body’s cholesterol homeostasis. D. Cholesterol is the major sterol in animal tissues. E. All of these 241. What is the rate-limiting enzyme and the major control point for cholesterol biosynthesis? A. HMG CoA reductase B. Decarboxylase C. Kinase D. Transferase E. Isomerase 242. Cholelithiasis is a: A. Kidney failure condition B. Cholesterol storage disease C. Cholesterol gallstone disease D. Cholesterol degradation failure E. Heart problem 243. A patient with Type 1 hyperlipoproteinemia is deficient in: A. Lipoprotein lipase B. HMG-CoA synthase C. HMG-CoA reductase D. L-carnithine E. Apo B 244. Which of the following lipoproteins contains the highest amount of triacylglycerol? A. Chylomicron B. HDL C. LDL D. VLDL E. IDL 245. A patient with Type II hyperlipidemia is expected to have an increase in: A. LDL B. Cholesterol C. TAG D. A and B E. A, B, and C 246. An increase in plasma HDL is correlated to a/an: A. Decrease risk of arthrosclerosis B. Increase risk atherosclerosis C. No significant effect in arthrosclerosis D. Increase chance of CHD E. Increase chance of Tangier disease 247. What precursor is present in glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex hormone? A. Monosaccharides B. Prostanioc acid C. Isoprene units D. Cholesterol E. Purine/pyrimidines 248. What hormone is labeled as “stress hormone”? A. TSH B. ACTH C. LH and FH D. Prolactin E. Vasopressin 249. Aldosterone’s primary effect: I. Increase glucose uptake II. Increase sodium uptake III. Increase potassium excretion IV. Increase blood pressure A. I and II B. II and III C. II and III D. II,III and IV E. I,II,III and IV 250. Carl Derrick, 35y/o male was seen in the emergency room because of recurrent abdominal pain. The history revealed a 2-year pattern of pain in the upper right quadrant, beginning several hours after the ingestion of meal rich in fried/fatty food. Ultrasonographic examination demonstrated the presence of numerous stones in the gallbladder. The patient initially elected treatment consisting of exogenously supplied chenodeoxycholic acid, but eventually underwent surgery for the removal of the gallbladder, and had a full recovery. The rationale for the initial treatment of this patient with chenodeoxycholic acid is that this compound: A. Interferes with enterohepatic circulation B. Inhibits cholesterol synthesis C. Increases de novo bile acid production D. Increase cholesterol solubility in the bile E. Increase the hydrophobicity of gallstones 251. Which lipoproteins deliver dietary (exogenous) TAG to peripheral tissues? A. HDL B. LDL C. Chylomicron D. VLDL E. IDL 252. Activator of lipoprotein lipase A. Apoprotein CII B. Apoprotein B48 C. Apoprotein A1 D. Apoprotein E E. Apoprotein B100 253. Major carriers of triacylglycerols A. LDL B. VLDL C. Chylomicron D. A and B E. B and C 254. The formation of lipid-rich plagues in the intima of arteries A. Gout B. Cornea arus accumulation C. Atherosclerosis D. Farber’s disease E. Tangler disease 255. In terms of density, arrange the following lipoproteins in descending order: I. Chylomicrons II. LDL III. VLDL IV. IDL V. HDL A. I-II-III-V-IV B. I-III-II-IV-V C. V-IV-III-II-I D. V-II-IV-III-I E. V-I-II-IV-III 256. Patients with Familial lipoprotein lipase (LDL) deficiency (chylomicronemia) is treated with: A. Niacin B. Diet C. Gemfibrozil D. Simvastatin E. Cholestyramine 257. Fatty acids, which are the major source of energy in the human body, are oxidized mainly by: A. Beta-oxidation B. w-oxidation C. a-oxidation D. peroxisomal oxidation E. none of these 258. A patient with high blood cholesterol levels was treated with Lovastatin. This drug lowers blood cholesterol levels due primarily to which one of the following? A. inhibition of absorption of dietary cholesterol B. inhibition of lipoprotein lipase in adipose tissue C. inhibition of citrate lyase in the liver D. inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase in the liver and peripheral tissues E. induction of LDL receptors in the liver and peripheral tissues 259. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is caused by a decrease ability of the B-cells of the pancreas to produce insulin. A person with Type 1 diabetes mellitus who has neglected to take insulin injection will exhibits which one of the following? A. Increased fatty acid synthesis from glucose in liver B. Decreased conversion of fatty acids to ketone bodies C. Increased stone of triacylglycerol in adipose tissue D. Increased production of acetone E. Increased glucose transport into muscle cells 260. Shannon, a 2 day-old infant born at 32 weeks gestation has had breathing difficulties since birth and is currently on a respirator and 100% oxygen. These difficulties occur due to which one of the following? A. An inability of the lungs to contract to exhale B. An inability of the lungs to expand when taking in air C. An inability of the lung to respond to insulin D. An inability of the lungs to respond to glucagon E. An inability of the lungs to produce energy 261. Biological effects of insulin: I. Increase glucose uptake II. Increase glycogenolysis III. Increase protein synthesis IV. Increase fat synthesis A. I and II B. I,II and III C. I, III, and IV D. III and IV E. I,II,III and IV 262. Biological effects of glucagon I. Increase glucose uptake II. Increase glycogenolysis III. Increase protein synthesis IV. Increase fat synthesis A. I and II B. I,II and III C. I, III, and IV D. III and IV E. I,II,III and IV 263. Which of the following oppose/s the many actions of insulin? I. Glucagon II. Epinephrine III. Cortisol IV. Growth hormone A. I and II B. I and III C. I,II and III D. II and III E. I,II,III and IV 264. Which of the following is not considered a essential component of the diet but may provide a significant contribution to the daily caloric intake of some individuals? A. Carbohydrate B. Protein C. Essential fatty acid D. Ethanol E. Miinerals 265. Consumption of fats containing w-6 polyunsaturated fatty acid PUFAs: A. Increase HDL levels B. decrease LDL level C. Decrease HDL level D. A and B E. B and C 266. True statement about trans fatty acid include: I. Unsaturated fatty acid II. Elevate serum LDL III. Elevate serum HDL IV. Increase the risk of CHD A. I and II B. I,II and III C. II and III D. I,II and IV E. I,II,III and IV 267. Correct statement about nitrogen balance include: I. Positive nitrogen balance occur when nitrogen intake exceeds nitrogen excretion II. Negative nitrogen balance occurs when nitrogen loses are greater than nitrogen intake. III. Negative nitrogen balance is observed in situations in which tissue growth occurs. IV. Positive nitrogen balance is associated with inadequate dietary protein A. I and II B. II and III C. III and IV D. I,II and III E. I,II,III, and IV 268. Given the information that a 70-kg man is consuming a daily average of 275g of carbohydrate, 75g of protein, and 65g of lipid, how many kilocalories are generated? A. 415kcal B. 1985 kcal C. 3,410 kcal D. 1950 kcal E. 4,310 kcal 269. Where in the body the carotenoids are converted to vitamin A? A. Liver B. Kidney C. Muscles D. Brain E. Intestine 270. Which of the following fat soluble vitamins has a coenzyme function? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin K D. Vitamin D E. Vitamin E 271. Macrocytic nutritional anemia: I. Deficiency in folate II. Deficiency in Vitamin B12 III. Iron deficiency anemia IV. Protein-energy malnutrition A. I and II B. II and III C. III and IV D. I, II and III E. I, II, III and IV 272. A condition in which the blood has a lower than normal concentration of hemoglobin, which results in reduced ability to transport oxygen. A. Anemia B. Hypoxia C. Methemoglobinemia D. Erythropoietic protoporhyria E. Cyanosis 273. What is the most common form of nutritional anemia? A. Iron-deficiency anemia B. Pernicious anemia C. Thallassemia D. Megaloblastic anemia E. Pernicious anemia 274. The most common neural tube defect is: A. Spina bifida B. Anencephaly C. Microcephaly D. A and B E. B and C 275. Vitamin B12 is synthesized only by: A. Microorganisms B. Plants C. Animals D. A and B E. B and C 276. Megaloblastic anemia is due to deficiency of: A. Vitamin B9 B. Vitamin B12 C. Vitamin B15 D. A and C E. A and B 277. A severe malabasorption of vitamin b12 leads to A. Pernicious anemia B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Sickle cell anemia D. Aplastic anemia E. Polycythemia vera 278. Vitamin C: I. Active form of vitamin c II. An oxidizing agent III. Coenzyme on hydroxylation ractions IV. Facilitates the absorption of dietary iron A. I and II B. III and IV C. I,II, and III D. I,III and IV E. I,II,III and IV 279. Anti-oxidant vitamin include: I. vitamin c II. Vitamin a III. Vitamin D IV. Vitamin E A. I and II B. I and III C. I,II, and III D. I,II and IV E. I,II,III and IV 280. The only water soluble vitamin with significant toxicity A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin B6 D. Vitamin B9 E. Vitamin B2 281. Thiamine deficiency with is seen primarily in association with chronic alcoholism A. Beriberi B. Scurvy C. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome D. Hemorrhage E. RBC fragility 282. Dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia are classic symptoms of what vitamin deficiency? A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin B2 C. Vitamin B3 D. Vitamin B6 E. Vitamin B9 283.Niacin effect on lipids: I. decrease LDL II. Decrease VLDL III. Decrease TAG IV. Decrease HDL A. I and II B. I,II and III C. II,III and IV D. I and III E. I,II,III and IV 284. Dermatitis, chellosis and glossitis are symptoms of which vitamin deficiency? A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin B2 C. Vitamin B3 D. Vitamin B4 E. Vitamin B5 285. The addition of raw egg white to the diet as a source of protein induces symptoms of biotin deficiency, namely, dermatitis, glossitis, loss of appetite, and nausea. What component of raw egg white tightly binds biotin and prevents its absorption from the intestine? A. Collagen B. Avidin C. Albumin D. Glianin E. Albuminoid 286. What vitamin is a component of Coenzyme A (CoA, which functions in the transfer of acyl groups? A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin B2 C. Vitamin B3 D. Vitamin B5 E. Vitamin B6 287. Which vitamin A forms is useful in dermatology? A. Retinol B. Retinal C. Beta-carotene D. Retinoic acid E. Retinyl ester 288. Isotretinoin I. 13-cis-retinoic acid II. Treatment of promylelocytic leukemia III. Useful in severe, recalcitrant cystic acne A. I only B. II only C. III only D.I and II E. I, II and III 289. Function of vitamin D, EXCEPT: A. Increasing uptake of calcium by the intestine B. Increasing loss of calcium by the kidney C. Stimulating resorption of bone D. A and B E. B and C 290. Vitamin K is required in the hepatic synthesis of prothrombin and blood clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. Which drug antagonizes the action of Vitamin K? A. Aspirin B. Ibuprofen C. Heparin D. Warfarin E. Clopidogrel 291. The least toxic of the fat-soluble vitamins A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin E E. Vitamin K 292. Vitamin K deficiency is common in: A. Newborn B. Adult male C. Adult female D. Adolescent E. Geriatric patients 293. Vitamin k A. plays a essential role om preventing thrombosis B. increases the coagulation time in newborn infants wth hemorrhagic disease C. is present in high concentration in cow or breast milk D. is synthesized by intestinal bacteria E. is a water-soluble vitamin 294. Deficiency of peroximal PhyH (phytanoyl-CoA a-hydroxylase) A. Refsum disease B. Zellweger syndrome C. Trisomy syndrome D. Lysosomal storage disease E. Klinefeiter syndrome 295. Which of the following biochemical reactions does not happen in the mitochondria? A. Kreb cycle B. Fatty acid synthesis C. Lipoprotein synthesis D. Beta-oxidation E. Heme synthesis 296. People who suffer from binges of overeating, followed by self-induced vomiting to avoid gaining weight have a condition called: A. Anorexia nervosa B. Bulimia C. Stress eating disease D. Anemia E. A and B 297. The observable traits of the individuals produced by the interaction of the genes and the environment A. Phenotype B. Genotype C. Genes D. Allele E. Locus 298. Turner syndrome A. Trisomy 13 B. Trisomy 18 C. Trisomy 21 D. Monosomy X E. XYY 299. The genetic composition of the individual A. Phenotype B. Genotype C. Heritability D. Penetrance E. Variable expressivity 300. Which of the following is correctly paired? I. Point mutations: a change in one bases of the DNA II. Deletions: a loss of bases in the DNA III. Insertions: new DNA sequence added into existing DNA IV. Extra copy of an allele: trisomy for an autosomal chromosome A. I and II B. II and III C. I and IV D. I,II and III E. I,II,III and IV Pharmacognosy & Plant Chemistry E. Tartaric acid 7. The following crude drugs have cremocarp type of 1. Saponin glycosides are known for the following fruit and belongs to family Apiaceae EXCEPT characteristics, EXEPT A. Anise A. Contains only the steroidal type of aglycone B. Buchu B. Hemolysis of the red blood cells C. Caraway C. Irritating to the mucous membrane D. Fennel D. They have bitter, acid taste E. Celery E. They are insoluble in water 8. In opium poppy, the amount of this alkaloid in the 2. The main compound responsible for the bitterness of capsules is high when the latex is harvested after lupulin which is used in the manufacture of beer. flowering. A. Humulone A. Codeine B. Lupulone B. Morphine C. Xanthohumol C. Noscapine D. Both A & B D. Papaverine E. Both B & C E. Thebaine 3. Kamala, a dull reddish brown powder with 9. An 8-carbon sugar which was isolated from crushed characteristic globular glands and unicellular curved Persea americana pulp and Sedum is __? trichomes, contain this phlorglucinol derivative with anthelmintic property. A. D-glycero- D-lactooctulose B. D-glycero- L-lactooctulose A. Berberine C. D-glycero- D-octulose B. Emetine D. D-glycero- D-manno-octulose C. Quinine E. D-glycero- D-gluco-octulose D. Plumbagin E. Rottlerin 10. The following cardiacglycosides have a steroidal type of aglycone EXCEPT 4. The type of plant which has an additional carbon fixation system characterized by synthesizing A. Adonitoxin oxaloacetic acid in the presence of light thereby B. Cymarin reducing photorespiration and water loss. C. Digoxin D. Hellebrin A. C3 plants E. Strophanthoside B. C4 plants C. CAM 11. Alkaloids often occur in plants in association with a D. All characteristic acid; this is the specific acid in which E. None opium alkaloids are commonly associated 5. Alginic acid which is used as a gastroprotectant is A. Cinchotannic acid derived from marine plants which belong to this B. Meconic acid specific family. C. Quinic acid D. Shikimic acid A. Bacillariophyceae E. Tartaric acid B. Fucaceae C. Gelidiaceae 12. The tropic acid fragment of tropane alkaloids like D. Gracilariaceae hyoscine and hyoscyamine is derived from this E. Gigartinaceae specific amino acid. 6. A tricarboxylic acid which is commercially prepared A. Alanine from lemons and pineapples by fermentation of B. Glycine sucrose. C. Phenylalanine D. Proline A. Citric acid E. Tyrosine B. Lactic acid C. Malic acid 13. This is the basic unit moiety of cocaine alkaloids D. Oxalic acid  A. Cinnamylcocaine B. Bromide B. Egconine C. Chloride C. Truxillic acid D. Oxide D. All E. Terpene E. None 20. A C-10 compound which serves as precursor of 14. The following alkaloids are classified under terpenes and is formed by condensation of heterocyclic alkaloids EXCEPT isopentenyl pyrophosphate and dimethyallyl pyrophosphate. A. Arecoline B. Cocaine A. Farnesyl pyrophosphate C. Colchicine B. Geranyl pyrophosphate D. Lobeline C. Neryl pyrophosphate E. Quinine D. Methyl pyrophosphate E. None 15. The following active principles isolated from plants exhibit haemolytic property EXCEPT 21. The main source of Manila copal, a resin which is commonly used for varnish. A. Arbutin B. Glycyrrhizin A. Agathis alba C. Senegin B. Agathis australis D. A-solanin C. Garcinia hanburii E. Tomatin D. Pinus palustris E. Pistacia lentiscus 16. Saponin glycoside with pentacyclic triterpenoidal aglycone is commonly isolated in dicotyledonous 22. The following active principle are used as diuretics by plants. What type of saponin will have this type of promoting dilation of the renal medullary blood vessel aglycone? EXCEPT A. Acid saponin A. Bearberry B. Basic saponin B. Coffee C. Neutral saponin C. Horsetail D. All D. Hydrastis E. None E. Tea 17. A purified mixture of saccharides which contain not 23. Salicin which is regarded as the natural forerunner of less than 93% dextrose and is prepared by controlled aspirin and was isolated from willow bark is classified enzymatic hydrolysis of starch is called__? as _____ glycoside A. Dextrose A. Alcohol B. Dextran B. Lactone C. Dextrates C. Phenolic D. Liquid glucose D. A and B E. None E. A and C 18. Compound benzoin tincture is commonly used as 24. The largest group among the naturally occurring topical protectant and is composed of the following phenolic compounds substances EXCEPT A. Anthocyanins A. Aloe B. Anthraquinone B. Benzoin C. Coumarin C. Peru balsam D. Flavonoids D. Storax E. Tannins E. Tolu balsam 25. Pectin, a polysaccharide which occurs in the middle 19. This specific compound is removed by distillation lamellae of cell wall and abundant in the inner portion under reduced pressure from the volatile oils like of rind of citrus fruits is composed of repeating units lemon and orange to avoid deterioration and of ____. development of terebinthinate odor. A. D-galacturonic acid A. Acetate B. D-guluronic acid  C. D-mannuronic acid C. Dianthrone D. D-glycosamine D. Aloin E. D-glucoronic acid E. Anthracene 26. The following statements are true about saponin 32. Which of the following statement is incorrect about glycosides EXCEPT anthraquinone glycosides? A. Saponins have high molecular weight and a high A. The dihydroxy and trihydroxyphenolic derivatives polarity and difficult to isolate. of anthraquinone have purgative property. B. Aqueous solution of saponin produces froth. B. Anthraquinone derivates are usually orange red C. Saponins cause hemolysis of the RBC when compounds. injected intravenously and is toxic when taken C. The laxative action of the anthraquinone is orally. restricted to the small intestine. D. The steroidal saponins are more widely D. They are soluble in hot water or dilute alcohol. distributed in nature than the pentacyclic E. None triterpenoidal type. E. None 33. Aloe vera gel is usually used for the treatment of the following EXCEPT 27. The specific saponin glycoside derived from yam which serve as precursor for the manufacture of A. Burns corticosteroid, oral contraceptives and sex hormones. B. Abrasions and skin irritation C. Inflammation A. Hecogenin D. Diarrhea B. Smilagenin E. Alopecia C. Diosgenin D. Sarsapogenin 34. The specific reaction which involves the anaerobic E. Parillin conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid 28. What type of ginseng is produced after the root was A. Acetate mevalonate pathway exposed to steam followed by artificial drying and sun B. Embden-Meyerhof pathway drying? C. Shikimic acid pathway D. Tricarboxylic acid pathway A. Yelllow ginseng E. None B. White ginseng C. Red ginseng 35. This substance contains lactose and inorganic salts D. Orange ginseng and is considered as by product of cheese production E. None A. Buttermilk 29. The dried unpeeled or peeled root and stolons of B. Butter licorice is classified under what type of glycoside? C. Condensed milk D. Whey A. Alcohol E. Yogurt B. Saponin C. Sweet 36. This is the specific gum combined with frangula in the D. A and B preparation of Movicol® E. B and C A. Acacia 30. Which of the following compounds is not a B. Karaya cyanogenic glycoside ? C. Ghatti D. Tragacanth A. Linamarin E. Sodium alginate B. Amygdalin C. Mannihotoxin 37. The following statements about anthraquinone D. Arbutin glycosides are true, EXCEPT E. Phaseolunatin A. Their aglycones are related to the anthracene 31. Which of the following anthraquinone derivatives is structure an isomer of anthrone? B. They are usually used as cathartic agents C. The aglycone portion exhibit greater activity in A. Oxanthrone the absence of the glycone B. Anthranol  D. Upon hydrolysis, the aglycone portion consists E. Triricinolein odf a di-,tri, or tetrahydroxyanthraquinone or modifications of these compounds 44. The reaction involved in the conversion of liquid oils E. None to semisolid fats which are used as cooking fats and shortening. 38. The specific enzyme which acts on the non-reducing ends of polysaccharide and produce pure maltose as A. Dehydrogenation product when the substrate is amylose. B. Hydrogenation C. Oxidation A. A amylase D. Esterification B. B amylase E. Saponification C. Dextrinase D. Glucosidase 45. The following is not a flavonoid glycoside? E. None A. Hyperoside 39. The % concentration of hetastarch solution which is B. Quercetin used as plasma expander. C. Rutin D. Salicin A. 4% E. Vitexin B. 6% C. 8% 46. The product is formed by the action of nitric acid and D. 10% alcohol on turpentine oil after distillation with aqueous E. None solution of sodium hydroxide. 40. The polysaccharide which is used in culture media as A. Rectified Turpentine oil a fermentative identifying agent for certain bacteria B. Terpin hydrate and for evaluation of renal functions. C. Terpinol D. A and B A. Agar E. B and C B. Cellulose C. Dextran 47. The prostaglandin which is used for palliative therapy D. Inulin of neonates with patent ductus arteriosus and E. Starch congenital heart defects due to its vasodilating property. 41. This specific enzyme found in Leuconostoc mesenteroides is used to convert sucrose to dextran. A. Alprostadil B. Carboprost A. Dextran amylase C. Dinoprost B. Dextrinase D. Dinoprostone C. Dextran glucosidase E. None D. Dextran sucrase E. None 48. A substance obtain from Glycine soja which is used to control damaged of lipid and cholesterol 42. One of the chief constituents of tragacanth which is metabolism more water soluble and is known as demethylated bassorin A. Lecithin B. Soybean oil A. Arabic acid C. Soybean cake B. Bassorin D. Soybean meal C. Mannuronic acid E. None D. Sulfate ester content E. Tragacanthin 49. What is the flour sifted from decorticated, ground seed of Glycine soja amd is used for the detection of 43. One of the primary constituents of Benne oil which is urea nitrogen in blood serum? contained in the unsaponifiable fraction of oil and is an effective synergist for pyrethrum insecticides. A. Lecithin B. Soybean oil A. Pyrethin C. Soybean cake B. Sesamol D. Soybean meal C. Sesamolin E. None D. Stigmasnterol 50. What are these polyunsaturated octadecanoic acids 56. Which among the following is an acyclic monoterpine which are essential for human nutrition and are hydrocarbon? referred to as Vitamin F? A. Cymene A. Oleic acid B. Limonene B. Linoleic acid C. Myrcene C. Linolenic acid D. Pinene D. A and B E. Sabinene E. B and C 57. Which of the following is not true about menthol? 51. Glyceryl triacetate exhibits antifungal activity through the gradual release of this particular acid on skin in A. Natural menthol can rotate the polarized light to non-irritating concentration? the left B. It is prepared from Japanese peppermint oil by A. Acetic acid refrigeration B. Formic acid C. It is used as topical antipruritic agent C. Salicylic acid D. It has stimulant effect on the heart D. Undecylenic acid E. None E. None of these 58. Which of the following principles is not derived from 52. Which of the following is not a plant wax? Eucalyptus? A. Bayberry wax A. Cineole B. Carnauba wax B. Cajuputol C. Jojoba oil C. Eucalyptol D. Lac wax D. Eugenol E. None of these E. None 53. Which of the following statements are true about 59. Methyl salicylate can be isolated from the following volatile oils EXCEPT oils EXCEPT A. They have high refractive index and mostly are A. Betula oil optically active B. Clove oil B. They are usually colorless but on long standing C. Gaultheria oil they may oxidize and become rancid D. Sweet birch oil C. They occur in specialized secretory structures E. Wintergreen oil D. The chemical constituents of volatile oils are derived from either terpene or aromatic 60. Which of the following is not a source of an compounds oleoresin? E. None A. Capsicum 54. What type of distillation is employed if the fresh plant B. Copaifera drugs are used and maceration of the plant is C. Ginger unnecessary? D. Pine E. Podophyllum A. Water distillation B. Water and steam ditillation 61. The most accurate way of identifying crude drugs C. Direct steam distillation D. Destructive distillation A. Organoleptic evaluation E. None B. Microscopic C. Chemical methods 55. Cinnamic acid and p-coumaric acid are the principal D. DNA barcoding phenylpropanoid compounds found in volatile oils E. All which are derived from which of the following aromatic amino acids? 62. A science dealing with the study of classification, identification, cultivation and protection of crude A. Phenylalanine drugs and production of effevtive element at B. Tyrosine molecular level C. Proline D. A and B A. Botany E. B and C B. Molecular Pharmacognosy  C. Pharmacognosy C. Misuse caused by sharing of similar common D. Systemic Botany names. E. Taxonomy D. Identification of crude drugs through morphological histological features, chemical 63. The study objects of Molecular Pharmacognosy are methods and DNA sequencing limited to E. Historical use of local substitutes A. Animal sources 69. Chemical composition of crude drugs varies with a B. Herbal drugs number of factors like C. Mineral drugs D. A and B A. Growing stage E. All B. Harvest time C. Locality 64. The genetically modified organisms are used as ____ D. Storage condition to produce exogenous gene encoding goods and are E. All referred as “new generation pharmaceutical factories” 70. T-DNA is transferred into a plant tissue to induce A. Bioreactors hairy roots or crown gall formation which is mediated B. Catalysts by this specific bacterium C. Reactants D. Substrates A. Agrobacterium E. None B. Bacillus C. Clostridium 65. The study of the correlations among genetic D. Staphylococcus relationships, chemical components and efficacies of E. Streptococcus medicinal plants. 71. A natural vector for gene transfer in A. rhizogenes A. Plant taxonomy which is used in transgenic organ transformation B. Phylogenetics system by specifically inducing hairy root production C. Pharmaphylogeny D. Phytochemistry A. Ri plasmid E. Pharmacognosy B. T-DNA C. Ti-plasmid 66. An extremely complicated process from genes to D. Vir region biological phenotypes which serve as the core of E. None study of secondary metabolites. 72. The main biosynthetic pathway which produces the A. Aerobic respiration secondary metabolites like alkaloid B. Biosynthetic pathway C. Glycolysis A. Acetate malonate D. Photosynthesis B. Cinnamic acid E. None C. Mevalonate D. Amino acid 67. In 1815, CA Seydler, a German who was referred to E. None as the Father of Pharmacognosy used the word “Pharmakognosie” in his book titled ______. 73. No question. A. De Materia Medica 74. The acetate malonate pathway is responsible for the B. The Historia synthesis of the following compounds EXCEPT C. Analectica Pharmacognostica D. Lehrbuch der Materia Medica A. Anthraquinone E. None B. Alkaloids C. Fatty acids 68. Adulteration of crude drugs is due to the following, D. Phenolic compounds EXCEPT E. None A. Erroneous adulteration caused by sharing of 75. Terpenoids are generally produced yhrough this similar features or absence of distinguishable specific pathway characters B. Intentional substitution of high value material by A. Acetate malonate inexpensive substances B. Cinnamic acid  C. Mevalonate 82. The 8-carbon sugar which was isolated from crushed D. Amino acid avocado pulp and from rock garden plant, Sedum is E. All known as 76. The most important intermediate product in the A. D-gluco-octulose biosynthesic pathway of terpenoid B. D-glycero-D-manno-octulose C. D-glycero-D-levulose A. Geranyl pyrophosphate D. All B. Farnesyl pyrophosphate E. None C. Isopentanyl pyrophosphate D. Geranylgeranyl pyrophosphate 83. A nonreducing sugar commonly found in fungi E. None A. Lactose 77. The following compounds are produced through the B. Galactose cinnamic acid pathway EXCEPT C. Sucrose D. Trehalose A. Coumarins E. None B. Lignins C. Flavonoids 84. The following seed gums are known as bulk forming D. Phenylpropanoids laxatives EXCEPT E. Terpenoids A. Guar gum 78. The following herbal drugs obtained from the plants B. Locust bean gum characterized with alternate leaves, cymose flowers C. Plantago and capsule or berry type of fruits are classified under D. All family Solanaceae, EXCEPT E. None A. Belladonna 85. Xanthan gum, a microbial gum prepared by the action B. Datura of Xanthomonas campestris is known for its _______ C. Hyoscyamus property which enables its use in toothpaste and D. Poppy ointment production E. Stramonium A. Dilatants 79. The cannabinol content of Cannabis sativa is high at B. Plastic this stage of development C. Pseudoplastic D. Shear thickening A. In old, matured plants E. None B. During shoot production C. Young plant 86. In photosynthesis, what type of reaction is D. A and B responsible for the fixing or reducing of carbon E. B and C dioxide into sugar? 80. When the opium poppy is harvested before flowering, A. Dark reactions the latex will contain more of this constituent B. Light reactions C. Both A. Codeine D. none B. Morphine C. Narcotine 87. The following sugar alcohol are products of D. Heroin reductivemetabolism of sugar EXCEPT E. All A. Dulcitol 81. The cyclic form of levulose when it is present in B. Glucitol oligosaccharide or polysaccharises C. Mannitol D. Propranol A. Fructofuranose E. Sorbitol B. Fructopyranose C. Glucofuranose 88. The primary sugar ehich is obtained by hydrolysis of D. Glucopyranose inulin E. None A. Fructose B. Galactose  C. Glucose 95. The specific acid are produced after the hydrolysis of D. Mannose triricinolein by lipases which exert cathartic effect E. Sucrose A. Linoleic acid 89. In cheese production, the liquid by product which is B. Oleic acid formed after the addition of renin and the separation C. Palmitic acid from the coagulum D. Ricinoleic acid E. Undecylenic acid A. Butter B. Buttermilk 96. A fixed oil from the seed of Carthamus tinctorius C. Cheese which is used as antilipemic agent in conjunction with D. Malted milk an adequate dietary adjustment E. Whey A. Almond oil 90. Lactulose is converted to the following acids after the B. Persic oil action of intestinal bacteria C. Safflower oil D. Sesame oil A. Acetic acid E. Sunflower oil B. Gluconic acid C. Lactic acid 97. The only liquid plant wax expressed from seeds of D. A and B Simmondsia chinensis E. A and C A. Carnauba wax 91. The following are correct about nonhydrolyzable B. Bees wax tannins EXCEPT C. Jojoba D. Spermaceti A. Derived from condensation of 2 or more flavan 3- E. None ols like catechin B. Derived from condensation of 2 or more flavan 98. The volatile oil of this crude drug is obtained by 3,4-diols like leucocyanidin expression C. When treated with hydrolytic agents they fprm phlobaphenes A. Cinnamon D. They readily hydrolyzed to yield phenolic acids B. Clove and sugar C. Peppermint E. Form green colored solution with FeCl3 D. Orange E. Spearmint 92. Pharmacologic activities of lactone glycosides are the following EXCEPT 99. The dehydration and decarboxylation product of prepehenic acid which leads to the formation of A. Anticoagulation phenylalanine B. Antispasmodic C. Aphrodisiac A. P-hydroxyphenylpyruvic acid D. Cardiotonic B. O-methylphenylpyruvic acid E. Repigmentation C. Phenylpyruvic acid D. Pyruvic acid 93. The principal products of hydrolysis of salicin E. Pyruvate A. D-glucose and salicyl alcohol 100. The following crude drugs are classified B. D-glucose and saligenin under cardiac glycoside EXCEPT C. D-glucose and salicylic acid D. A and B A. Adonis E. B and C B. Convallaria C. Dogbane 94. The following substances are homopolysaccharide D. Green hellebore EXCEPT E. Squill A. Glycogen