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3IS REVIEWER 🙂 ​ Question: A patient with PID is prescribed metronidazole. Which instruction should the nurse...

3IS REVIEWER 🙂 ​ Question: A patient with PID is prescribed metronidazole. Which instruction should the nurse provide? Question: A 25-year-old sexually active female A) "Avoid consuming alcohol during and for 48 presents with lower abdominal pain, fever, and hours after completing this medication." abnormal vaginal discharge. Which condition is B) "Take the medication with a full glass of milk." most likely? C) "Discontinue the medication if you experience a A) Urinary tract infection headache." B) Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) D) "This medication may cause your urine to turn C) Ovarian cyst blue." D) Appendicitis A 10-year-old child is newly diagnosed with Type Question: Which of the following is a common 1 Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following is the causative organism of PID? primary cause of this condition? A) Escherichia coli A) Insulin resistance B) Streptococcus pneumoniae B) Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae C) Obesity-induced insulin deficiency D) Candida albicans D) Insulin receptor insensitivity Question: A patient with PID is prescribed Question: Which of the following is a classic doxycycline. Which instruction should the nurse symptom of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus? provide? A) Polyuria A) "Take the medication with a full glass of milk." B) Weight gain B) "Complete the full course of antibiotics, even if C) Hypoglycemia you feel better." D) Hyperinsulinemia C) "Discontinue the medication if you experience a headache." A patient with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is D) "This medication may cause your urine to turn experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the blue." following symptoms would the nurse expect to observe? Question: A 30-year-old female with PID is A) Kussmaul respirations experiencing severe abdominal pain. Which B) Tachycardia and sweating intervention should the nurse prioritize? C) Fruity-smelling breath A) Administering prescribed analgesics D) Warm, dry skin B) Applying a heating pad to the abdomen C) Encouraging deep breathing exercises Which laboratory test is used to monitor long-term D) Positioning the patient in a supine position glucose control in individuals with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus? Question: Which of the following is a common A) Fasting blood glucose complication of untreated PID? B) Oral glucose tolerance test A) Ectopic pregnancy C) Hemoglobin A1c B) Ovarian cyst rupture D) Urine ketone test C) Urinary tract infection D) Appendicitis Question: A patient with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is prescribed insulin therapy. Which of the Question: A patient with PID is advised to avoid following is the primary purpose of insulin sexual intercourse during treatment. What is the administration? primary reason for this recommendation? A) To increase blood glucose levels A) To prevent transmission of the infection to the B) To promote glucose uptake into cells partner C) To stimulate glucagon release B) To reduce the risk of developing a yeast D) To decrease insulin sensitivity infection C) To prevent further irritation of the reproductive organs D) To allow the patient to rest and recover Question: Which complication is most commonly Question: A patient with a history of allergic associated with poorly controlled Type 1 Diabetes rhinitis is prescribed intranasal corticosteroids. Mellitus? Which instruction should the nurse provide? A) Diabetic ketoacidosis A) "Use the spray in both nostrils simultaneously." B) Hypoglycemic coma B) "Tilt your head backward during C) Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state administration." D) Insulin resistance C) "Clear your nasal passages before use." D) "Use the spray only when symptoms are Question: A patient with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus severe." is experiencing nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The nurse suspects diabetic ketoacidosis. Question: A patient with a history of anaphylaxis Which of the following laboratory findings would due to shellfish allergy is prescribed an epinephrine support this suspicion? auto-injector. Which statement by the patient A) Elevated blood glucose and low pH indicates a need for further teaching? B) Decreased blood glucose and elevated pH A) "I should use this device at the first sign of C) Normal blood glucose and normal pH anaphylaxis." D) Elevated blood glucose and normal pH B) "I should seek emergency medical attention after using this device." Question: A patient with a known allergy to bee C) "I should carry this device with me at all times." stings presents with swelling of the lips, difficulty D) "I can use this device to treat any allergic breathing, and a rash after being stung. Which type reaction." of hypersensitivity reaction is this? A) Type I (IgE-mediated) Question: A patient who has undergone a kidney B) Type II (Cytotoxic) transplant is experiencing fever, graft tenderness, C) Type III (Immune Complex) and decreased urine output. Which type of D) Type IV (Delayed-type) transplant rejection is most likely occurring? A) Hyperacute rejection Question: A patient with a history of asthma and B) Acute rejection allergic rhinitis is prescribed an antihistamine. C) Chronic rejection Which symptom is the antihistamine most likely to D) Graft-versus-host disease alleviate? A) Bronchoconstriction Question: A patient with a liver transplant is at B) Nasal congestion increased risk for which type of infection due to C) Skin rash immunosuppressive therapy? D) Gastrointestinal upset A) Bacterial infections B) Fungal infections Question: A patient with a known latex allergy is C) Viral infections scheduled for surgery. Which action should the D) Parasitic infections surgical team take to prevent an allergic reaction? A) Use latex-free gloves and equipment Question: Which immunosuppressive medication is B) Administer an antihistamine preoperatively commonly prescribed to prevent transplant C) Ensure the operating room is well-ventilated rejection? D) Apply a topical corticosteroid to the surgical site A) Prednisone B) Aspirin Question: A patient with a history of severe peanut C) Ibuprofen allergies is prescribed an epinephrine auto-injector. D) Acetaminophen Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? Question: Which laboratory test is used to monitor A) "I should carry this device with me at all times." the effectiveness of immunosuppressive therapy in B) "I can use this device to treat any allergic transplant recipients? reaction." A) Complete blood count (CBC) C) "I should seek emergency medical attention B) Serum creatinine after using this device." C) Drug levels of immunosuppressive agents D) "I should administer this device at the first sign D) Liver function tests of anaphylaxis." Question: A patient with a heart transplant is experiencing shortness of breath, fatigue, and a low-grade fever. Which complication should the nurse suspect? A) Acute rejection B) Chronic rejection C) Graft-versus-host disease D) Infection Question: Which of the following is a common side effect of long-term immunosuppressive therapy in transplant recipients? A) Hypertension B) Hypoglycemia C) Anemia D) Leukopenia Question: A patient with a kidney transplant is receiving cyclosporine. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely? A) Serum potassium B) Serum creatinine C) Serum calcium D) Serum albumin Question: Which symptom is most indicative of chronic rejection in a lung transplant recipient? A) Fever B) Cough with sputum production C) Decreased oxygen saturation D) Chest pain Question: A patient with a kidney transplant is prescribed mycophenolate mofetil. Which instruction should the nurse provide? A) "Take this medication on an empty stomach." B) "Avoid exposure to sunlight." C) "Use effective contraception during treatment." D) "Discontinue the medication if you experience diarrhea."  D) “Tonight I’m cooking fried potatoes with a side FLUIDS AND dish of peas.” 🙂 ELECTROLYTES A patient’s magnesium level is 0.9. The doctor orders magnesium sulfate IV. Which nursing REVIEWER intervention takes PRIORITY? A) Assessing for hypertension B) Monitoring deep tendon reflexes A patient with a magnesium level of 3.6 would C) Monitoring potassium levels exhibit which of the signs and symptoms D) Monitoring skin turgor EXCEPT? A) Hypotension Which arrhythmia is a patient who has a B) Profound lethargy magnesium level of 0.8 most likely to experience? C) Respiratory failure A) Heart block D) Hyperreflexia of the deep tendons B) Bradycardia C) Torsades de pointes Magnesium is absorbed by which system of the D) Normal sinus rhythm body? A) Gastrointestinal On admission, a patient’s blood alcohol level is B) Hepatic greater than 400 mg/dL. The patient reports C) Lymphatic drinking a 12-pack of beer daily. Which of the D) Renal following conditions is this patient MOST at risk for? Question: Which of the following patients is A) Hypomagnesemia MOST at risk for hypermagnesemia? B) Hypermagnesemia A) A patient with alcoholism C) Hyponatremia B) A patient taking a proton-pump inhibitor called D) Hypernatremia Protonix C) A patient suffering from Crohn’s Disease Chronic alcohol consumption can lead to D) A patient with a magnesium level of 0.6 magnesium deficiency due to poor dietary intake receiving IV magnesium sulfate and increased renal excretion. A patient has a magnesium level of 1.3 mg/dL. Question: A patient is admitted to the ER. The Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom patient receives dialysis on Tuesdays and of this condition? Thursdays of every week, and presents with a A) Tall T-wave and depressed ST segment palpable AV shunt (thrill present) in the left upper B) Torsades de pointes arm. The patient is extremely lethargic and family C) Positive Trousseau’s and Chvostek’s signs members are present to help answer questions. D) Hyperreflexia While collecting the patient’s medication history, the daughter states her mother has been taking “a Which electrolyte imbalance is often associated lot” of Maalox lately due to upset stomach. You with hypomagnesemia? note this to be a significant finding. Which of the A) Hypernatremia following la B) Hypercalcemia A) Magnesium level of 1.0 C) Hypokalemia B) Magnesium level of 2.4 D) Hyperphosphatemia C) Magnesium level of 3.6 D) Magnesium level of 1.4 A nurse is monitoring a patient receiving IV magnesium sulfate for severe hypomagnesemia. Question: A patient is being discharged after being Which finding requires immediate intervention? hospitalized with a magnesium level of 0.7. After A) Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg diet teaching with this patient, which statement by B) Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min the patient warrants you to re-educate the patient? C) Deep tendon reflexes +2 A) “I love eating salads with kale and spinach.” D) Serum magnesium level of 2.0 mg/dL B) “I’m shocked mackerel contains magnesium.” C) “I can’t believe I have to give up dark chocolate.”  A patient with hypermagnesemia is being treated What dietary advice should a nurse give to a patient with loop diuretics. What is the expected outcome with chronic hypomagnesemia? of this treatment? A) Avoid nuts and seeds A) Increased magnesium excretion B) Consume more dairy products B) Reduced potassium excretion C) Increase intake of leafy green vegetables C) Increased calcium absorption D) Limit seafood consumption D) Reduced sodium levels Which medication is most likely to contribute to Which ECG change is commonly associated with hypomagnesemia? hypermagnesemia? A) Proton pump inhibitors A) Peaked T waves B) Beta-blockers B) Prolonged PR interval C) Calcium channel blockers C) Shortened QT interval D) ACE inhibitors D) ST segment elevation A patient presents with muscle weakness, nausea, A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary and a magnesium level of 3.2 mg/dL. What is the disease (COPD) is at risk for which acid-base first nursing intervention? imbalance? A) Administer IV magnesium sulfate A) Respiratory alkalosis B) Discontinue all magnesium-containing B) Metabolic acidosis medications C) Respiratory acidosis C) Encourage oral fluid intake D) Metabolic alkalosis D) Place the patient on a cardiac monitor A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis presents with a In which condition is magnesium sulfate commonly fruity odor on the breath. This is indicative of administered as part of emergency treatment? which acid-base imbalance? A) Hypercalcemia A) Respiratory acidosis B) Eclampsia B) Metabolic acidosis C) Hypoglycemia C) Respiratory alkalosis D) Hypernatremia D) Metabolic alkalosis A patient is experiencing hypermagnesemia. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate? A) Administering calcium gluconate B) Restricting calcium-rich foods C) Administering potassium supplements D) Encouraging bed rest What is the normal range for serum magnesium levels? A) 0.8–1.5 mg/dL B) 1.3–2.1 mg/dL C) 2.5–3.5 mg/dL D) 3.0–4.5 mg/dL Which condition increases a patient’s risk of developing hypomagnesemia? A) Chronic kidney disease B) Alcoholism C) Hypothyroidism D) Hypertension  🙂 5.. A 22 year old patient with rheumatic fever has OXYGENATION ​ subcutaneous nodules, erythema marginatum, and polyarthritis of multiple joints. An appropriate REVIEWER nursing diagnosis based on these findings is: a. Activity intolerance related to arthralgia b. Risk for infection related to open skin lesions. 1. Nurse Tin should realize that the client with right c. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to ventricular heart failure may develop ascites pruritus and scratching. because of: d. Risk for impaired physical mobility related to a. Loss of cellular constituents of the blood permanent joint fixation. b. Rapid osmosis from tissue space to the cells c. Increased pressure within the circulatory systems 6. When obtaining a nursing history from a d. Rapid diffusion of solutes and solvent into the 23-year-old man with rheumatic fever, the nurse plasma recognizes that the most significant information related by the patient is that he: 2. Part of health teaching to clients with Congestive a. Has used illicit intravenous drugs within the last Heart Failure is having low sodium intake. Which 3 months. statement by the client indicates that the nurse's b. Has been unemployed for 6 months and has been nutrition teaching plan has been effective? eating poorly. a. "I choose tossed salad with sardines and tomato c. Suffered chest trauma with a fractured rib during sauce." a fight 2 weeks ago.n 3 b. "I choose a baked potato." d. Had an upper respiratory infection with a sore c. "I choose Chicken soup with chicken meat." throat about 3 weeks ago. Od. "I choose ham and cheeze sandwich with ketchup and mayonaise." 7. The commonest age group affected by acute rheumatic fever is 3. Rheumatic fever is defined as a diffuse, a. 2-4 years inflammatory disease caused by a delayed immune b) 3-5 years response to infection by the c) 5-15 years a. staphylococcus d) Greater than15 years of age B. mycobacterium tubercle bacilli C. Group A Beta-hemolytic streptococci (GAS) 8. Which of the following complications is D. Human immunodeficiency virus indicated by a third heart sound (S3)? A. Ventricular dilation 4. A 28-year-old patient with a group A B. Systemic hypertension streptococcal pharyngitis does not want to take the C. Aortic valve malfunction antibiotics prescribed. What should the nurse tell D. Increased atrial contractions the patient to encourage the patient to take the medications and avoid complications of the 9. A child with rheumatic fever will be arriving in infection? the nursing unit for admission. On admission a. "The complications of this infection will affect assessment, the nurse should ask the parents which the skin, hair, and balance." question to elicit assessment information specific to b. "You will not feel well if you do not take the the development of rheumatic fever medicine and get over this infection." a. "Has the child complained of back pain?" c. "Without treatment, you could get rheumatic b. "Has the child complained of headaches?" fever, which can lead to rheumatic heart disease." c. "Has the child had any nausea or vomiting?" d. "You may not want to take the antibiotics for this d. "Did the child have a sore throat or fever within infection, but you will be sorry if you do not." the last 2 months?" 10. Which is a priority dependent nursing 15. The nurse devises a teaching plan for the intervention for a patient during the acute phase of patient with aplastic anemia. Which of the rheumatic fever? following is the most important concept to teach for a. administration of antibiotics as ordered health maintenance? b. management of pain with opioid analgesics a. Eat animal protein and dark leafy vegetables c. encouragement of fluid intake for hydration each day d. performance of frequent, active range-of motion b. Avoid exposure to others with acute infection exercises c. Practice yoga and meditation to decrease stress and anxiety 11. Nurse REn devises a teaching plan for patient d. Get 8 hours of sleep at night and take naps Lara who has aplastic anemia. Which of the during the day following is the most important concept to teach for health maintenance? 16.The nurse writes a dx of altered tissue perfusion a. Eat animal protein and dark leafy vegetables for a client diagnosed with anemia. The following each day interventions should be included in the plan of care b. Avoid exposure to others with acute infection EXCEPT c. Practice yoga and meditation to decrease stress a..Monitor the clients hemoglobin and hematocrit and anxiety b. Move the client to a room near the nurses desk d. Get 8 hours of sleep at night and take naps c..Limit the clients dietary intake of green during the day vegetables d. Assess the client for numbness and tingling 12. Rona is diagnosed with aplastic anemia, as the nurse assigned you will monitors for changes in 17. The client dx with anemia begins to complain which of the following physiological functions? of dyspnea when ambulating in the hall. Which a. Bleeding tendencies intervention should the nurse implement first b. Intake and output a. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula c. Peripheral sensation b. Get a wheelchair for the client d. Bowel function c..Assess the clients lung fields d. Assist the client when ambulating in the hall 13. Which of the following diagnostic findings are most likely for a client with aplastic anemia? 18. A patient with a history of coronary artery a. Decreased production of T-helper cells disease is being treated for a myocardial infarction b.. Decreased levels of white blood cells, red blood (MI). During treatment, acute mitral valve cells, and platelets regurgitation occurs. What is the most likely cause c. -Increased levels of WBCs, RBCs, and platelets of the acute mitral valve dysfunction? d.. Reed-Sternberg cells and lymph node a. Ventricular fibrillation enlargement b. Infective endocarditis c. Rupture of the chordae tendineae 14. It refers to bone marrow failure disorder (or d. Atherosclerosis group of disorders) characterized by cellular depletion and fatty replacement of the bone 19. All but one are the most at risk for developing marrow. coronary artery disease EXCEPT a. IDA A. A 25 year old patient who exercises 3 times per b. Thalasemia week for 30 minutes a day and has a history of c. Sickle cell anemia cervical cancer. d. Aplastic Anemia B. A 35 year old male with a BMI of 30 and reports smoking 2 packs of cigarettes a day. C. A 45 year old female that reports her father died at the age of 42 from a myocardial infraction. 20. Lipitor is prescribed for a patient with a high 24. A patient with a history of coronary artery cholesterol level. As the nurse, how do you educate disease is being treated for a myocardial infarction the patient on how this drugs works on the body? (MI). During treatment, acute mitral valve A. LipA. itor increases LDL levels and decreases regurgitation occurs. What is the most likely cause HDL levels, total cholesterol, and triglyceride of the acute mitral valve dysfunction? levels. A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Lipitor decreases LDL, HDL levels, total B. Infective endocarditis cholesterol, and triglyceride levels. C. Rupture of the chordae tendineae C. Lipitor increases HDL levels, total cholesterol, D. Atherosclerosis and triglyceride levels. D. Lipitor increases HDL levels and decreases 25. A client who has a strong family history of LDL, total cholesterol, and triglyceride levels. coronary artery disease asks the nurse, "How can I decrease my chances of developing problems with 21. The school nurse is a guest speaker in a high Which response by the nurse is appropriate school health class talking about coronary artery EXCEPT. disease (CAD). Which statement by the nurse is 1. "Keeping your blood pressure within normal most beneficial to include in the presentation? levels will decrease the risk of injury to your a. "If you eat healthy foods you can keep the levels arteries." of fat in your bloodstream low, which will 2. "A diet high in fruits, vegetables, and saturated minimize your risk of CAD." fatty acids may help protect your arteries." b. "It is much better to learn to prevent CAD, rather 3."You can reduce your risk by making some than to pay for the related treatments and changes in your lifestyle, such as moderate surgeries." exercise." c. "CAD is the leading cause of death in both men 4. As long as your cholesterol is normal, your and women, which means that all of you are at arteries will remain clear." risk." 5. There is little you can do except take medication d. "Some of the things that you can do now to to prevent coronary artery disease." minimize your risk of CAD are avoid fatty food, be active, and do not smoke." 26. A 58 year old patient, with newly diagnosed of cardiomyopathy, was discharge from the hospital. 22.. The nurse is teaching a client about coronary Several days later they come back to the clinic for artery disease (CAD). Which response by the client follow consultation. Which statement by the indicates the need for further teaching? patients that indicates success in implementing a a. "The increased levels of high-density planning goal set forth by the health care team? lipoproteins decrease the risk of atherosclerosis." a. "I do not have BP monitor at home, so I can't b. "It decreases quality of life but does not increase monitor like you said, but I make sure that i will a person's risk of death." record my BP every time my visit in the clinic c. "Damage to the linings of my arteries can cause b. 'I have cut back my smoking a lot, I lessened my clots and blockage." smoked from almost 1 packed/ day to a half d. It is a leading cause of death for men and women pack/day in the United States." c. "I have cut all fried foods, I have been eating a lot of fruits and vegetables 23. Which Client reaction should the nurse expect d. "I'm a little confused about what time of the day, during coronary artery spasm? I'm supposed to take my medication. a.acute reduction of consciousness b. gradual increase in peripheral edema 27. In which of the cardiomyopathies, you are c. gradual increase in systolic blood pressure likely to hear both S3 and S4 murmurs? d. sudden onset of acute chest pain a. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathies and restrictive cardiomyopathy b. Dilated cardiomyopathy and Restrictive Cardiomyopathy c. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia and Dilated Cardiomyopathy d. Dilated cardiomyopathy and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 28. Which diagnosis should the nurse expect to 32. A 56-year-old patient newly diagnosed with include when planning care for a client with cardiomyopathy was discharged after a short cardiomyopathy? hospital stay. Several weeks later they are seen for a. decreased cardiac output a follow-up b. pain, chronic appointment. Which statement by the patient c. impaired gas exchange indicates success in implementing a planning goal Od. fluid volume deficit set forth by the healthcare team? a. "I do not have a blood pressure (BP) monitor at 29. You are caring for client with dilated home, so I can't monitor that like you said, but I cardiomyopathy, The following clinical make sure I write down my BP every time I visit a manifestation anticipate by the nurse during the doctor." physical assessment EXCEPT? b. "I have cut back on my smoking a lot! I went a. Fatigue from almost a pack a day to a little over half a pack b. Lower extremity edema a day." c. Dyspnea c."I have cut out all fried foods and my favorite d. Angina snack, cured Italian meats! I've been eating a lot of fruit and vegetables lately as well." 30.. A client with cardiomyopathy is experiencing d."I'm still a little confused about what time of day short of breath during ambulation and eating, I'm supposed to take my medication, but I know experiencing fatigue with routine care activities. that it's supposed to help me, so I will try to be Which nursing diagnosis does the nurse include in better at that." the clients plan of care? a. Imbalance Nutrition: Less than body 33. A nurse is assessing the blood pressure of a requirements client diagnosed with primary hypertension. The b. deficient knowledge nurse ensures accurate measurement by avoiding c. activity intolerance which of the following? d. self care deficit a. Seating the client with arm bared, supported, and at heart level. 31. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) b. Measuring the blood pressure after the client has and arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia been seated quietly for 5 minutes. (ARVD) are most often found to be caused by c. Using a cuff with a rubber bladder that encircles inherited factors. Which is the correct description at least 80% of the limb. for the cause of these cardiomyopathies? d. Taking a blood pressure within 15 minutes after a.HCM and ARVD are linked to deficiencies in nicotine or caffeine ingestion. cardiac development. b.HCM and ARVD are linked to genetic mutations. 34. The most important long-term goal for a client c.HCM is associated with a genetic mutation with hypertension would be to: related to desmosomal proteins; ARVD is linked to a. Learn how to avoid stress a chromosomal defect. b. Make a commitment to long-term therapy d. HCM is linked to genetic mutations; ARVD is c. Explore a job change or early retirement due to chromosomal defects. d. Control high blood pressure 35. Rona was diagnosed having Hypertension. These are kind of physical activities that can help control and prevent HPN EXCEPT: a. Jogging for 45 minutes once a month b. Bicycling for1 hour for most days of the week c. Swimming for 30 minutes daily d. Walking for 30 minutes at least 5 times a week. 36. Regular moderate exercise is very beneficial to 41. A patient is prescribed a new medication for the the patient having high blood pressure, The treatment of hypertension. While supine, the rationale are the following EXCEPT: patient's blood pressure is 112/70 mmHg and the a. helps bring down your blood pressure heart rate is 80/minute. The healthcare provider b. it strengthens your heart assesses the patient when the patient changes to a c. cause vasoconstriction sitting position. Which of the following indicates d. helps you stay at a healthy weight the patient is experiencing orthostatic hypotension? a. BP 88/62 mmHg, HR 100 bpm 37. Which family of drugs is the following b. BP 90/60 mmHg, HR 68 medications considered: Amlodipine, Verapamil, c. BP 120/84 mmHg, HR 82 Diltiazem? d. BP 100/70 mmHG, HR 95 a. ACE Inhibitors (ACEI) b. Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBs) 42. A patient is prescribed a calcium channel c. Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs) blocker to treat primary hypertension. When d. Beta blockers (BB) teaching the patient about the medication, which of these foods will the healthcare provider advise the 38. Which action will the nurse in the hypertension patient to avoid? clinic take in order to obtain an accurate baseline a. Eggs a. Obtain a BP reading in each arm and average the b. Grapefruit results. c. Bananas b. Deflate the BP cuff at a rate of 5 to 10 mm Hg d. Oranges per second. c. Have the patient sit in a chair with the feet flat on 43. 64. Which of the following patients does not the floor have a risk factor for hypertension? d. Assist the patient to the supine position for BP a. 40 year old female with a family history of measurements. hypertension and diabetes. b. 35 year old female with a total cholesterol level 39. A patient is diagnosed with primary of 100. hypertension. When taking the patient's history, the c. A 25 year old male with a BMI of 35. healthcare provider anticipates the patient will d. A 68 year old male who reports smoking 2 packs report which of the following? of cigarettes a day. a. Sometimes I get pain in my lower legs when I take my daily walk." 44. A client has been diagnosed with hypertension. b. "I have not noticed any significant changes in The nurse priority nursing diagnosis would be: my health.” a. Ineffective health maintenance c."I'm starting to get out of breath when I go up a b. Pain flight of stairs." c. impaired skin integrity d. "every once in a while I wake up at night d. deficient volume deficit covered in sweat." 45. A patient has been diagnosed with chronic 40. A patient is prescribed a thiazide diuretic for mitral regurgitation. When the treatment of hypertension. When teaching the interviewing the patient, which of these should the patient about the medication, which of the healthcare provider expect the patient to report? following will the healthcare provider include? a. Frequent dyspnea a. "take this medication each day with a large glass b. Occasional syncope of water after evening meal." c. Swelling of the feet b. I'll teach you how to take your radial pulse d. Insomnia 3 nights/week before taking the medication." c. "Be sure to include a number of foods that are rich in potassium in your diet." d. "Stop taking this medication if you notice changes in how much you urinate." 46. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient 52. 1.A mitral murmur is best heard at the with a systolic heart murmur. Which of these valve a. base of the heart disorders are associated with a systolic murmur? b. first intercostal space a. Aortic and tricuspid stenosis c. fifth intercostal space (apex) b. Pulmonic regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis d. third intercostal space c. Aortic stenosis and mitral regurgitation d. Pulmonic and mitral regurgitation 53. The most common cause of an abdominal aortic aneurysm is: 47.A patient has been diagnosed with aortic a. Atherosclerosis regurgitation. Which of these patient reported b. DM symptoms requires the healthcare provider's c. HPN immediate intervention? d. Pneumonia a. Chest pain b. Orthopnea 54.Mrs, Rivas is diagnosed having abdominal c. Shortness of breath aneurysm. upon auscultation of the abdomen of the d. Palpitations patient, you heard a sounds over the abdominal region. Which of the following sounds is distinctly 48. A patient who has a diagnosis of mitral valve heard on auscultation? stenosis is admitted to the hospital. Which of these a. Murmurs findings indicate the patient is experiencing a b. Bruit serious complication from this valve disorder? c. Cracles a. Left hemiparesis and visual changes d. Friction rub b. Hypotension and syncope c. Intermittent claudication 55. Which of the following groups of symptoms d. Sudden onset of dyspnea indicated a ruptured abdominal aneurysm? a. Lower back pain, increased BP, decrease RBC, 49. A patient who had a mitral valve replacement increase WBC with a prosthetic mechanical valve and is ready for b. Severe lower back pain, decreased BP, decreased discharge home. The following information should RBC, increase WBC the healthcare provider include in the discharge c. Severe lower back pain, decrease BP, decrease teaching for this patient EXCEPT. RBC, decreased WBC Od. Intermittent lower back a. "Your valve will need to be replaced after 10 pain, decreased BP, Decreased RBC, increased years." WBC b. "If you plan to become pregnant, be sure to Clear selection consult your healthcare provider." c. "You may need to take an antibiotic before 56. Ms. Beth undergoes surgery and the abdominal certain medical or dental procedures." ​ aortic aneurysm is resected and replaced with a d. "You will need to come in regularly for graft. When she arrives in the RR she is still in coagulation studies." shock. The nurse's priority should be: a. Opta. Placing her in a Trendelenburg position 50.A heart valve disease is often discovered during b. Putting several warm blankets to the patient an exam when_ c. Monitor hourly urine output a. Stress test is performed d. Assessing the vital signs especially the RR b. An angiogram is performed c. Patient complains of chest pain d. x-ray 51. In relation to the S1 and S2 heart sounds, which of the following are NOT CORRECT? a. Systole occurs immediately prior to S1. b. Diastole occurs between $2 and $1. c. S2 marks the end of systole. d. Systole occurs between S1 and S2. 57.Mr. George comes to the emergency department 62. Nurse Kay is caring for a patient immediately with abdominal pain. Work-up reveals the presence after repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Upon of a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm. assessment, the patient has absent popliteal, Which of the following actions should the nurse posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis pulses. The legs expect? are cool and mottled. Which action should the a. The patient will be admitted to the medicine unit nurse take first? for observation and medication a. Notify the surgeon and anesthesiologist. b. The patient will be admitted to the surgery unit B. Wrap both the legs in a warming blanket. for sclerotherapy C. Document the findings and recheck in 15 c. The patient will be admitted to the surgical unit minutes. and resection will be scheduled D. Compare findings to the preoperative d. The patient will be discharged home to follow up assessment of the pulses. with his cardiologist in 24 hours 63. Lorie is admitted to the hospital with a 58. The primary pathophysiology underlying diagnosis of abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which thalassemia is signs and symptoms would suggest that his a. erythropoietin deficiency. aneurysm has ruptured b. abnormal hemoglobin synthesis. a. Sudden shortness of breath and hemoptysis c. autoimmunity. b. Sudden, severe low back pain and bruising along d. S-shaped hemoglobin. his flank c. Gradually increasing substernal chest pain and 59. When the patient experiences apprehension and diaphoresis urticaria while receiving a blood transfusion, the d. Sudden, patchy blue mottling on feet and toes nurse: and rest pain a. slows the transfusion and takes the patient's vital signs 64. Admission vital signs for a brain-injured patient b. observes the child for further transfusion are blood pressure 128/68, pulse 110, and reactions respirations 26. Which set of vital signs, if taken 1 c. stops the transfusion, allows normal saline hour after admission, will be of most concern to the solution to run slowly, and notifies the charge nurse nurse? d. stops what he or she is doing and obtains the a. Blood I pressure 154/68, pulse 56, respirations patient's history 12 b. Blood pressure 134/72, pulse 90, respirations 32 60. Thalassemia major (Cooley's anemia) is treated C. Blood pressure 148/78, pulse 112, respirations primarily with: 28 a. a diet high in iron D, Blood pressure 110/70, pulse 120, respirations b. multiple blood transfusions 30 c. bed rest until the sedimentation rate is normal d. oxygen therapy 65. A 51-year-old patient who is unconscious has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective cerebral tissue 61. Which nursing action should be included in the perfusion related to cerebral tissue swelling. Which plan of care after endovascular repair of an nursing intervention will be included in the plan of abdominal aortic aneurysm? care? a. Record hourly chest tube drainage. a. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. B. Monitor fluid intake and urine output B. Position the patient with knees and hips flexed. C. Check the abdominal incision for any redness. C. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees. D. Teach the reason for a prolonged recovery D. Cluster nursing interventions to provide rest period. periods