Pharmacology II Past Paper PDF

Pharmacology II (Sem V) 1. Second generation cephalosporin which can cross blood brain barrier is A. cefuroxime B. cefachlor C. cefoxitin D. cefazolin Ans- D 2. All of the following drugs show their action by attaching to 50 S subunit except A. erythromycin B. chloramphenia...

Pharmacology II (Sem V) 1. Second generation cephalosporin which can cross blood brain barrier is A. cefuroxime B. cefachlor C. cefoxitin D. cefazolin Ans- D 2. All of the following drugs show their action by attaching to 50 S subunit except A. erythromycin B. chlorampheniaol C. clindamycin D. ciprofloxacin Ans- D 3. All of the following drugs show their action by attaching to 30 S subunit except A. Tetracyclin B. netilimicin C. Lincomycin D. Gentamycin Ans- C 4. Semisynthetic aminoglycoside antibiotic is A. kenamycin B. amikacin C. streptomycin D. sisomycin Ans- B 5. Which of the following does not interferes with absorption of tetracycline from GIT  A. Presence of food B. acidic PH C. milk D. antacid Ans- B 6. Grey baby syndrome is side effect of which drug A. kenamycin B. amikacin C. streptomycin D. chloramphenicol Ans- D 7. Antibiotic produced from Actinomycete isolated from soil of India is A. chloramphenicol B. Vincomycin C. streptomycin D. kenamycin Ans- B 8. Antibacterial drugs becomes ineffective in presence of pus is A. chloramphenicol B. penicillin C. sulphonamide D. kenamycin Ans- C 9. Crystalurea is well known side effect of which drug A. chloramphenicol B. penicillin C. sulphonamide D. streptomycin Ans- C  10. For synergestic effect sulphametoxazole is combined with which drug A. chloramphenicol B. trimethoprim C. sulphonamide D. streptomycin Ans- B 11. For synergestic effect sulphametoxazole is combined with which drug A. chloramphenicol B. trimethoprim C. sulphonamide D. streptomycin Ans- B 12. For synergestic which one of the following is a broad spectrum topical antifungal agent? A. Miconazole B. tolnaftate C. Naftifine D. Ciclopirox olamine Ans- D 13. The antifungal drug which acts by inhibiting fungal mitosis is A. griseofulvin B. ketoconazole C. flucytosine D. amphotericin B Ans- A  14. Which one of the following is not a triazole derivative? A. Terconazole B. Itraconazole C. Fluconazole D. Econazole Ans- D 15. Orall y and topically active antifungal drug having allylamine structural feature is A. Itraconazole B. Fluconazole C. ketoconazole D. Terbinafine Ans- D 16. The antifungal drug that can effectively cross the blood brain barrier is A. butaconazole B. flucytosine C. cotrimazole D. amphotericin B Ans- B 17. Name the DNA virus which does not utilise host cell RNA polvmerase for replication A. Adino virus B. Herpes virus C. Papilloma virus D. poxy virus Ans- D 18. The drug of choice for blocking the replication of small pox virus is A. acyclovir B. interferon C. methisazone D. Gamma-globulin Ans- C  19. Which of the following is not caused by DNA virus? A. Chicken pox B. Measles C. Hepatitis B D. Conjunctivitis Ans- B 20. Which of the following condition is not caused by RNA virus? A. Yellow fever B. Influenza C. Waris D. Warts Ans- D 21. All of the following drugs are effective for AIDS or AIDS related complex except A. stavudine B. acyclovir C. zidovudine D. zalcitabine Ans- B 22. Which one of the following is not a first line antitubercular drug? A. ethambutol B. rifampin C. rifabutin D. pyrazinamide Ans- C 23. Urate concentration in urine is increased by i) Pyrazinamide ii) ethambutol iii) ethionamide iv) INH A. i) & ii) B. ii) & iii) C. iii) & iv) D. i) & iv) Ans- A  24. INH drug is A. Isoniazide B. rifampin C. ethambutol D. pyrazinamide Ans- A 25. TB is caused by A. Mycobacterium leprye B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. E coli D. Basili Ans- B 26. Leprosy is caused by A. Mycobacterium B. Cocai C. E coli D. Basilus Ans- A 27. Dapson is well known A. antiTB drug B. antileprosy drug C. antibiotic D. antifungal Ans- B 28. Mycobacterium is which type of bacteria A. Gram positive B. Gram negative C. Acid fast D. all of above Ans- C  29. Malaria is caused by A. Gram positive bacteria B. Gram negative bacteria C. Acid fast bacteria D. None of above Ans- D 30. Malaria is which type of disease A. bacterial B. viral C. protozoal D. all of above Ans- C 31. Primaquine senstivity is due to deficiency of A. Glucose-6 phosphatase B. Glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase C. Pseudocholinesterases D. None of the above Ans- B 32. Primaquine senstivity is due to deficiency of A. Glucose-6 phosphatase B. Glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase C. Pseudocholinesterases D. None of the above Ans- B 33. The most common sideeffect of chloroquine in dark-skinned persons is A. pruritis B. headache C. urticaria D. visual disturbances Ans- A  34. All of the following statements concerning sulfonamides are correct except: A. They are bacteriostatic B. Inhibit dihydrofolate reductase C. Crystaluria may occur D. more effective in presence of pus Ans- D 35. All of the following drugs are active against Pneumocystis carini except A. Atovaquine B. pentamidine C. co-trimoxazole D. lincomycin Ans- D 36. Nitroimidazole derivative effective in acute Chaga's disease is A. ornidazzole B. tinidazole C. metronidazole D. benznidazole Ans- D 37. All of the following drugs are effective in amoebiasis for the treatment of asymptomatic cysts passers except A. pentamidine B. melarsoprol C. eflornithine D. suramine Ans- B 38. Metronidazole is not effective in which of the following case? A. Giardiasis B. fragilis infection C. Symptomatic amoebiasis D. Asymptomatic cyst passer infected with E. hisolytica Ans- D  39. Causative organism of amoebiasis A. E. hisolytica B. Plasmodium C. Bacteria D. virus Ans- A 30. Which form of amoeba is non motile A. capsulated B. Cyst C. trans D. Cis Ans- B 41. Drug of choice for treatment of systemic fungal infection A. Meconazole B. Clotrimazole C. Ketaconazole D. Amphotericin–B Ans- D 42. Which of the following is not an anti-fungal agent? A. Meconazole B. Clotrimazole C. Neomycin D. Amphotericin–B Ans- C 43. Which of the sulfonamide used in the treatment of malaria? A. Sulfadoxine B. Sulfadimidine C. Sulfafurazole D. Sulfasalazine Ans- A  44. The endocrine treatment of choice for postmenopausal women with metastatic breast cancer containing ER receptor is A. diethylstilbestrol B. hydroxyprogesterone C. aminoglutethimide D. tamoxifen Ans- C 45. Name the drug which is under study as a chemo preventive in women at risk of breast cancer. A. Megestrol acetate B. Diethylstilbestrol C. Aminoglutethimide D. tamoxifen Ans- C 46. The preferred drug used to treat metastatic testicular tumors is A. vincristin+bleomycin+cisplatin B. vinrosidine+bleomycin+cisplatin C. vindesine+bleomycin+cisplatin D. vinblastin+bleomycin+cisplatin Ans- D 47. Effective vinka alkaloid to treat lung cancer is A. vinrosidine B. vinrosidine C. vinorelbine D. vinblastin Ans- C  48. Peripheral neuritis caused by A. INH B. ethambutol C. ethionamide D. rifampin Ans- A 49. Peripheral neuritis caused by isoniazide can be prevented by pretreatment with A. Riboflavine B. Pyridoxine C. Thiamine D. All of the above Ans- B 50. The antineoplastic agent that is classified as an alkylating agent is A. Bleomycin B. Tamoxifen C. Vincristine D. Busulfan Ans- D 51. The antineoplastic agent methothrexate is A. Folic acid antagonist B. Purine antagonist C. Pyrimidine antagonist D. None of above Ans- A