Module 17. Round Up Quiz Answers PDF

Module 17. Round up Quiz! Answers 1. What instructions should a nurse provide to a new mother for caring for her infant's umbilical cord? A. Immerse the cord in water during baths. B. Cover the cord with a tight bandage. C. Keep the cord dry and clean. D. Apply alcohol to the cord regu...

Module 17. Round up Quiz! Answers 1. What instructions should a nurse provide to a new mother for caring for her infant's umbilical cord? A. Immerse the cord in water during baths. B. Cover the cord with a tight bandage. C. Keep the cord dry and clean. D. Apply alcohol to the cord regularly. Answer: Keep the cord dry and clean. (C) Keeping the cord dry and clean helps prevent infections. 2. Which type of lochia will the nurse assess immediately after a woman delivers her baby? A. Lochia alba B. Lochia rubra C. Lochia purulent D. Lochia serosa Answer: Lochia rubra (B) Lochia rubra is the vaginal discharge that occurs immediately after delivery. 3. In which scenario will a physician order RhoGAM for a mother? A. If the newborn shows signs of jaundice. B. If the mother has a family history of hemolytic disease. C. If the mother is Rh-negative and the newborn is Rh-positive. D. If the mother is experiencing an early pregnancy loss. Answer: If the mother is Rh-negative and the newborn is Rh-positive. (C) RhoGAM is indicated for Rh-negative mothers who have an Rh-positive infant. 4. What is assessed on a newborn during the initial Apgar score? A. Weight, length, and head circumference. B. Respiratory effort, muscle tone, and color. C. Blood pressure, pulse oximetry, and glucose level. D. Heart rate, reflexes, and temperature. Answer: Respiratory effort, muscle tone, and color. (B) The Apgar score evaluates respiratory effort, muscle tone, and color among other factors. 5. What nursing action is done if the apnea monitor indicates a preterm infant is having an apneic episode? A. Begin resuscitation immediately. B. Gently stimulate the infant. C. Increase the ventilator settings. D. Notify the physician immediately. Answer: Gently stimulate the infant. (B) Gently stimulating the infant is often the first response to an apneic episode. 6. During an assessment, a nurse observes a bulging anterior fontanelle in an infant who has undergone ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement. What should the nurse do next? A. Position the infant on their side B. Keep the infant in a flat supine position C. Apply a tight bandage around the head D. Place the infant in a prone position Answer: Position the infant on their side (A) Positioning the infant on their side can help reduce intracranial pressure. 7. What is the appropriate nursing action to prevent possible retinopathy in a preterm infant requiring oxygen therapy? A. Use the lowest effective oxygen concentration B. Maintain high oxygen saturation levels at all times C. Administer oxygen continuously without monitoring D. Allow the infant to have frequent hypoxic episodes Answer: Use the lowest effective oxygen concentration (A) Using the lowest effective oxygen concentration can help prevent oxygen toxicity and subsequently retinopathy. 8. What should the nurse's initial action be when using a bulb syringe to clear mucus from a newborn's nose and mouth? A. Warm the bulb syringe in the hands first B. Position the infant upright C. Suction the mouth before the nose D. Insert the bulb syringe into one nostril and squeeze Answer: Suction the mouth before the nose (C) The mouth should be suctioned first to prevent aspiration of mucus. 9. What will the nurse instruct the parents of a preterm infant receiving gavage feeds about stimulating the infant? A. Gentle stroking and talking can help the infant's development. B. Stimulating the infant should only be done during feeding times. C. Avoiding stimulation is best for preterm infants. D. Manual stimulation should be done aggressively to wake the infant. Answer: Gentle stroking and talking can help the infant's development. (A) Gentle stimulation can support the development of preterm infants and promote bonding. 10. What should the nurse do to ensure proper tube placement before initiating a gavage feeding? A. Measure the length of the tube from the nose to the stomach B. Administer a sedative to the infant C. Check the patient's temperature D. Auscultate for bowel sounds Answer: Measure the length of the tube from the nose to the stomach (A) Measuring the length of the tube ensures it is correctly positioned in the stomach. 11. Which sign should the nurse report regarding a preterm infant in the NICU? A. Lethargy and poor feeding response B. Mild jaundice C. Frequent sneezing D. Increased respiratory rate Answer: Lethargy and poor feeding response (A) Lethargy and poor feeding response can indicate possible complications in a preterm infant. 12. What is a common initial psychological stage experienced by a mother who feels uncertain about bathing her newborn for the first time? A. Maternal role attainment B. Anticipatory grief C. Early parenthood anxiety D. Postpartum blues Answer: Early parenthood anxiety (C) Early parenthood anxiety often involves uncertainties and worries about caring for a newborn. 13. What is the best response by the nurse when a mother of a 2- week-old infant thinks her baby is constipated? A. Try using a glycerin suppository regularly. B. Increase the baby's formula intake immediately. C. Consult a pediatrician before making any changes. D. Observe the baby's pattern and report any concerns. Answer: Observe the baby's pattern and report any concerns. (D) Observation is key before taking any action, as many newborns may experience variations in bowel movements. 14. During a postpartum assessment, a woman reports her right calf is painful with edema and redness. What should the nurse explain the probable treatment will involve? A. Administering antibiotics for a potential infection. B. Encouraging ambulation and hydration. C. Applying ice packs and using compression stockings. D. Immediate hospitalization for further evaluation. Answer: Encouraging ambulation and hydration. (B) Encouraging ambulation and hydration can help alleviate potential issues with deep vein thrombosis. 15. What is the primary purpose of positioning a diaper below the umbilical stump? A. To prevent skin irritation. B. To promote air circulation for drying. C. To facilitate better diaper fitting. D. To allow for moisture retention. Answer: To promote air circulation for drying. (B) Positioning the diaper low allows for better air circulation, which aids in the drying process. 16. What nursing action should be prioritized for a preterm infant receiving oxygen therapy to prevent possible retinopathy? A. Carefully monitor arterial oxygen levels with a pulse oximeter. B. Regularly assess the infant's visual responses. C. Maintain high oxygen levels to optimize oxygenation. D. Ensure the infant's eyes are covered at all times. Answer: Carefully monitor arterial oxygen levels with a pulse oximeter. (A) Monitoring arterial oxygen levels is critical in preventing retinopathy in high-risk infants. 17. What is the primary nursing concern for a preterm infant who has bloody stools? A. Assessing for signs of necrotizing enterocolitis. B. Increasing the feeding volume. C. Reassuring the parents about normal findings. D. Scheduling a follow-up appointment. Answer: Assessing for signs of necrotizing enterocolitis. (A) Bloody stools can be a sign of necrotizing enterocolitis, which requires close monitoring. 18. Which position is recommended for a breastfeeding mother recovering from a cesarean section? A. The football hold. B. Side-lying position. C. The traditional cradle hold. D. Lying flat on her back. Answer: The football hold. (A) The football hold minimizes pressure on the operative site, providing comfort during breastfeeding. 19. What initial action should a nurse take if she finds no lochia on the pad of a postpartum patient? A. Encourage the patient to ambulate. B. Report to the physician immediately. C. Perform a fundal assessment. D. Document the findings. Answer: Perform a fundal assessment. (C) A fundal assessment helps ascertain if there may be complications such as a retained placenta. 20. What physiological change is usually the first indication of postpartum hemorrhage? A. Tachycardia. B. Hypotension. C. Decreased urine output. D. Cold, clammy skin. Answer: Tachycardia. (A) Tachycardia is a compensatory response indicative of reduced blood volume due to hemorrhage. 21. What should a nurse monitor in a woman who gave birth to a large infant? A. Presence of cervical lacerations. B. Signs of endometritis. C. Possible formation of a hematoma. D. Breastfeeding difficulties. Answer: Possible formation of a hematoma. (C) Large infants are associated with an increased risk of hematoma formation, particularly after prolonged labor. 22. What is the primary reason for keeping an infant's eyes covered during phototherapy? A. To prevent overheating from the light B. To help the infant sleep better during the treatment C. To protect the eyes from damage caused by high-intensity lights D. To enhance the benefits of the light treatment Answer: To protect the eyes from damage caused by high-intensity lights (C) Patching the eyes is essential during phototherapy to protect the infant's eyes from potential damage from the bright lights. 23. What action should the nurse implement to protect newborns from infection in a nursery setting? A. Washing hands prior to handling each infant. B. Minimizing contact with visitors. C. Wearing gloves at all times. D. Keeping the nursery temperature regulated. Answer: Washing hands prior to handling each infant. (A) Hand hygiene is crucial for preventing infection transmission in all healthcare settings, particularly for vulnerable populations like newborns. 24. Which factor is NOT typically a risk for postpartum shock? A. Hypertension B. Anemia C. Blood clotting disorders D. Postpartum hemorrhage Answer: Hypertension (A) While anemia, postpartum hemorrhage, and blood clotting disorders are significant risk factors for postpartum shock, hypertension is not typically categorized as such. 25. What is a crucial nursing action when a mother expresses concerns over her baby having jaundice? A. Advise them to apply topical ointments B. Encourage frequent bathing of the infant C. Explain that the light therapy helps to break down bilirubin D. Reassure the parents that jaundice is permanent Answer: Explain that the light therapy helps to break down bilirubin (C) The role of phototherapy is to break down bilirubin in jaundiced infants, allowing for its excretion. 26. What is a key aspect of parenting education regarding home phototherapy for jaundiced infants? A. Limit the light exposure to only a few hours each day B. Cover the infant with blankets to retain warmth C. Use a standard lamp as the light source D. Expose as much skin as possible to the light Answer: Expose as much skin as possible to the light (D) Maximizing skin exposure to the phototherapy light is critical for effective treatment of jaundice. 27. What should a nurse focus on when addressing a first-time mother's breastfeeding challenges? A. The mother's nutrition habits B. Eliciting the rooting reflex to facilitate feeding C. The need for pumping breast milk D. The baby's sleeping pattern Answer: Eliciting the rooting reflex to facilitate feeding (B) The rooting reflex helps the infant locate the mother's breast to feed, facilitating the breastfeeding process. 28. Match the type of mood disorder with its characteristics: 1. Postpartum A. Intense worry about parenting Anxiety 2. Postpartum B. Severe impairment of reality Depression 3. Postpartum C. Serious illness impacting bonding Psychosis 4. Postpartum D. Self-limiting emotional fluctuations Blues Answer: Postpartum Blues = Self-limiting emotional fluctuations Postpartum Depression = Serious illness impacting bonding Postpartum Psychosis = Severe impairment of reality Postpartum Anxiety = Intense worry about parenting 29. Match the treatment with the corresponding condition: 1. A. Antibiotics and continued milk Mastitis removal treatment 2. Hypovolemic B. Stop bleeding and IV fluids shock management 3. Thromboembolic C. Anticoagulants disorder treatment 4. Postpartum D. Antibiotic therapy infection intervention Answer: Mastitis treatment = Antibiotics and continued milk removal Hypovolemic shock management = Stop bleeding and IV fluids Thromboembolic disorder treatment = Anticoagulants Postpartum infection intervention = Antibiotic therapy 30. Match the blood condition with its definition: 1. A. Diminished kidney function Hypovolemia 2. B. Increased heart rate Tachycardia 3. Decreased C. Low blood volume urine output 4. D. Lack of healthy red blood cells Anemia Answer: Anemia = Lack of healthy red blood cells Hypovolemia = Low blood volume Tachycardia = Increased heart rate Decreased urine output = Diminished kidney function 31. Match the cause of early postpartum hemorrhage with its description: 1. Retained A. Failure of uterus to contract placenta 2. Uterine B. Placenta not expelled after delivery atony 3. C. Localized collection of blood Lacerations outside blood vessels 4. D. Tears in the vaginal or cervical area Hematomas Answer: Uterine atony = Failure of uterus to contract Lacerations = Tears in the vaginal or cervical area Hematomas = Localized collection of blood outside blood vessels Retained placenta = Placenta not expelled after delivery 32. Match the intervention strategies with their applicable conditions: 1. Postpartum A. Support and combined therapy for Mood postpartum depression Disorder Intervention 2. Puerperal B. Monitoring for increased pulse Sepsis rate and fever Management 3. Thromboembolic C. Focus on pain management and Disorder antibiotics Prevention 4. Mastitis D. Avoiding leg crossing and early Treatment ambulation Answer: Thromboembolic Disorder Prevention = Avoiding leg crossing and early ambulation Mastitis Treatment = Focus on pain management and antibiotics Postpartum Mood Disorder Intervention = Support and combined therapy for postpartum depression Puerperal Sepsis Management = Monitoring for increased pulse rate and fever 33. Match the postpartum conditions with their potential outcomes: 1. Postpartum A. Need for therapy intervention Depression 2. B. Possible milk duct obstruction Mastitis 3. Lochia C. Monitoring for complications Rubra 4. Thromboembolic D. Risk of blood clots Disorders Answer: Thromboembolic Disorders = Risk of blood clots Mastitis = Possible milk duct obstruction Lochia Rubra = Monitoring for complications Postpartum Depression = Need for therapy intervention 34. Match the terms with their definitions related to postpartum complications: 1. A. Localized swelling filled with blood. Laceration 2. B. A tear in tissues of the Atony reproductive tract. 3. C. Lack of normal muscle tone in the Hematoma uterus. 4. D. Vaginal discharge after childbirth. Lochia Answer: Laceration = A tear in tissues of the reproductive tract. Lochia = Vaginal discharge after childbirth. Hematoma = Localized swelling filled with blood. Atony = Lack of normal muscle tone in the uterus. 35. Match the postpartum complications with their potential causes: 1. A. Inadequate contraction of the Subinvolution uterus post-delivery. of the Uterus 2. B. Infection or retained placental Thromboembolic fragments. Disorders 3. C. Immobility or dehydration in the Uterine postpartum period. Atony 4. D. Trauma to the reproductive tract Hematoma during childbirth. Answer: Uterine Atony = Inadequate contraction of the uterus post-delivery. Hematoma = Trauma to the reproductive tract during childbirth. Thromboembolic Disorders = Immobility or dehydration in the postpartum period. Subinvolution of the Uterus = Infection or retained placental fragments. 36. Which condition is characterized by inflammation of the breast tissue in breastfeeding women? A. Hematoma B. Mastitis C. Lochia Rubra D. Endometritis Answer: Mastitis (B) Mastitis is a common inflammation of the breast tissue typically occurring due to bacterial infection during breastfeeding. 37. What is the primary component of lochia rubra observed in postpartum women? A. Bright red blood B. Bacterial secretions C. Mucus and uterine tissue D. Serous fluid Answer: Bright red blood (A) Lochia rubra is characterized by a bright red color and consists mainly of blood during the first few days after childbirth. 38. What is a significant risk associated with hypovolemic shock? A. Inadequate oxygen delivery to body tissues B. Localized blood collection within tissues C. Delayed uterine involution D. Excessive breast tissue inflammation Answer: Inadequate oxygen delivery to body tissues (A) Hypovolemic shock occurs when there is severe blood loss, leading to insufficient oxygen delivery to body tissues. 39. Which postpartum complication is most associated with puerperal sepsis? A. Tears in the reproductive tract B. Inflammation of the uterine lining C. Vaginal discharge D. Blood clots in blood vessels Answer: Inflammation of the uterine lining (B) Puerperal sepsis is often caused by inflammation of the uterine lining, which can lead to serious bacterial infections. 40. What is the term for a collection of blood within tissues that can occur in the reproductive tract after delivery? A. Thromboembolic disorder B. Subinvolution C. Lochia D. Hematoma Answer: Hematoma (D) A hematoma refers to a localized collection of blood within tissues, which may occur due to trauma during childbirth. 41. What condition refers to the failure of the uterus to return to its normal size after childbirth? A. Endometritis B. Subinvolution of the Uterus C. Uterine Atony D. Hypovolemic Shock Answer: Subinvolution of the Uterus (B) Subinvolution of the uterus describes the condition when the uterus does not shrink back to its usual size and shape following childbirth. 42. In which condition is the formation of blood clots like deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE) most relevant? A. Endometritis B. Thromboembolic Disorders C. Uterine Atony D. Lochia Rubra Answer: Thromboembolic Disorders (B) Thromboembolic disorders involve conditions where blood clots can form within blood vessels, which may lead to serious complications. 43. What characterizes the vaginal discharge known as lochia? A. Consists only of blood B. Primarily involves serous fluid C. Composed of blood, mucus, and uterine tissue D. Only occurs during pregnancy Answer: Composed of blood, mucus, and uterine tissue (C) Lochia is vaginal discharge that occurs after childbirth and consists of blood, mucus, and uterine tissue. 44. What is a common treatment approach for managing hydrocephalus? A. Physical therapy to improve motor skills B. Surgical shunt placement to drain excess cerebrospinal fluid C. Intravenous hydration to reduce intracranial pressure D. Medication to stimulate cerebrospinal fluid production Answer: Surgical shunt placement to drain excess cerebrospinal fluid (B) Surgical shunt placement is a common treatment for hydrocephalus to relieve pressure caused by excess cerebrospinal fluid. 45. Which nursing care measure is essential for a child with spina bifida post-surgery? A. Avoid monitoring for signs of infection B. Conduct neurological assessments regularly C. Promote unrestricted mobility immediately after surgery D. Encourage oral feeding without restrictions Answer: Conduct neurological assessments regularly (B) Regular neurological assessments are crucial in monitoring the child's condition after surgery for spina bifida. 46. At what age is surgical repair for cleft lip typically recommended? A. After 1 year of age B. Between 9-12 months of age C. Before 6 months of age D. Before 2 years of age Answer: Before 6 months of age (C) Surgical repair of cleft lip, known as cheiloplasty, is usually performed before 6 months of age. 47. Which condition should be monitored for in infants with cleft palate during feeding? A. Overeating from excess liquid B. Increased crying during feeds C. Aspiration pneumonia D. Delayed growth Answer: Aspiration pneumonia (C) Infants with cleft palate are at risk for aspiration pneumonia due to feeding difficulties. 48. What is a primary nursing intervention for a child with hydrocephalus to monitor? A. Increased fluid intake B. Frequent neurological stimulation C. Regular measurements of head circumference D. Daily medications for nausea Answer: Regular measurements of head circumference (C) Regular measurements of head circumference are important to assess for changes in intracranial pressure in children with hydrocephalus. 49. Which of the following is an important post-operative care step for cleft lip surgery? A. Restricting all fluids for 24 hours B. Immediate feeding on demand C. Positioning to minimize the risk of aspiration D. Using pacifiers to soothe the infant Answer: Positioning to minimize the risk of aspiration (C) Proper positioning is critical after cleft lip surgery to minimize the risk of aspiration. 50. What is the recommended preventive measure for spina bifida during pregnancy? A. Increased intake of calcium supplements B. High-protein diet C. Folic acid supplementation D. Regular prenatal ultrasound screenings Answer: Folic acid supplementation (C) Folic acid supplementation during pregnancy is recommended to help prevent spina bifida. 51. What might be a long-term outcome for infants with treated hydrocephalus? A. No need for follow-up care B. Guaranteed normal cognitive function C. Potential developmental disabilities D. Total resolution of symptoms Answer: Potential developmental disabilities (C) While interventions can improve outcomes, some infants may still experience developmental disabilities. 52. Which type of cleft anomaly involves a fissure in the upper lip only? A. Meningocele B. Cleft uvula C. Cleft palate D. Cleft lip Answer: Cleft lip (D) Cleft lip is specifically characterized by a fissure in the upper lip due to incomplete fusion. 53. What function does folic acid have in the prevention of neural tube defects? A. Stimulates fetal growth B. Enhances cognitive development C. Increases maternal energy levels D. Reduces risk of improper neural tube closure Answer: Reduces risk of improper neural tube closure (D) Folic acid is known to reduce the risk of neural tube defects by supporting proper neural tube closure during fetal development. 54. What is the primary treatment method for developmental hip dysplasia in infants? A. Observation without intervention B. Spica casting for all patients C. Pavlik harness to maintain hip flexion and abduction D. Surgical intervention immediately after birth Answer: Pavlik harness to maintain hip flexion and abduction (C) The Pavlik harness is used to maintain hip flexion and abduction for treating developmental hip dysplasia. 55. Which of the following is a major characteristic of Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD)? A. Sweet-smelling urine B. Signs of jaundice at birth C. High levels of galactose in the blood D. Inability to metabolize phenylalanine Answer: Sweet-smelling urine (A) MSUD is characterized by a sweet-smelling urine due to the accumulation of certain metabolites. 56. What is an important nursing intervention for an infant receiving treatment for hemolytic disease of the newborn? A. Administration of vitamin K at birth B. Encouraging early breastfeeding C. Providing parental education on nutrition D. Monitoring bilirubin levels closely Answer: Monitoring bilirubin levels closely (D) Monitoring bilirubin levels is crucial in managing hemolytic disease of the newborn to prevent complications. 57. Which manifestation indicates a potential issue in an infant diagnosed with Galactosemia? A. Rapid weight gain B. Hyperactivity and aggression C. Increased appetite D. Lethargy and jaundice Answer: Lethargy and jaundice (D) Lethargy and jaundice are common symptoms associated with Galactosemia due to the buildup of galactose. 58. What nursing education is essential for managing infants with Phenylketonuria (PKU)? A. Promoting a diet high in phenylalanine B. Encouraging unrestricted protein intake C. Administering high-dose protein supplements D. Ensuring regular blood tests to monitor phenylalanine levels Answer: Ensuring regular blood tests to monitor phenylalanine levels (D) Regular blood tests to monitor phenylalanine levels are critical in managing PKU effectively. 59. What is the first line of treatment for an infant presenting with transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)? A. Immediate imaging for lung assessment B. Implementation of strict feeding protocols C. Supportive care including warmth and supplemental oxygen D. Aggressive ventilation support Answer: Supportive care including warmth and supplemental oxygen (C) Supportive care, including warmth and supplemental oxygen, is the initial approach for treating TTN. 60. What is a key nursing action for a child with a confirmed diagnosis of clubfoot? A. Promoting the use of splints and passive stretching techniques B. Immediate casting of both feet regardless of severity C. Educating parents about surgical intervention at 1 month D. Discouraging any movement until surgery is performed Answer: Promoting the use of splints and passive stretching techniques (A) Promoting the use of splints and passive stretching techniques is essential in the conservative treatment for clubfoot. 61. Which factor is most closely associated with an increased risk of developmental hip dysplasia? A. Higher levels of estrogen in female infants B. Advanced paternal age C. Low birth weight D. Exposure to tobacco smoke during pregnancy Answer: Higher levels of estrogen in female infants (A) Developmental hip dysplasia is more common in girls, potentially due to hormonal factors and positioning. 62. What is the critical nursing focus when caring for an infant with neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS)? A. Encouraging frequent handling and interaction B. Maintaining a quiet, low-stimulation environment C. Promoting immediate breast feeding without restrictions D. Administering high-calorie formulas for weight gain Answer: Maintaining a quiet, low-stimulation environment (B) Maintaining a quiet, low-stimulation environment is essential in caring for infants with NAS to minimize withdrawal symptoms. 63. What is the initial nursing intervention for a patient experiencing uterine atony? A. Apply ice to the abdomen B. Administer pain relief C. Encourage deep breathing exercises D. Massage the uterus until firm Answer: Massage the uterus until firm (D) Massaging the uterus helps to stimulate contractions necessary to stop the bleeding. 64. What distinguishes postpartum depression from postpartum blues? A. Type of delivery B. Age of the patient C. Intensity and duration of symptoms D. Presence of physical health problems Answer: Intensity and duration of symptoms (C) Postpartum depression involves persistent, severe feelings, unlike the temporary nature of postpartum blues. 65. What is the key consequence of untreated postpartum psychosis? A. Development of chronic anxiety B. Enhanced social support C. Suicide and infanticide risk D. Increased bonding with the baby Answer: Suicide and infanticide risk (C) Untreated postpartum psychosis can lead to severe outcomes, including potential harm to self or the baby. 66. Which category does pulmonary embolism belong to regarding postpartum complications? A. Thromboembolic disorders B. Uterine atony C. Hemorrhage D. Puerperal infections Answer: Thromboembolic disorders (A) Pulmonary embolism is one type of thromboembolic disorder that can occur postpartum. 67. What might be a symptom that indicates hypovolemic shock due to postpartum hemorrhage? A. Rapid pulse and dizziness B. Persistent high blood pressure C. Severe headache D. Increasing abdominal pain Answer: Rapid pulse and dizziness (A) Signs of hypovolemic shock include rapid pulse and feelings of dizziness due to low blood volume. 68. What are the three types of thromboembolic disorders that may occur postpartum? A. Superficial venous thrombosis, deep vein thrombosis, and pulmonary embolism B. Myocardial infarction, stroke, and DVT C. Hypertension, embolism, and infection D. Varicose veins, thrombosis, and stroke Answer: Superficial venous thrombosis, deep vein thrombosis, and pulmonary embolism (A) The three main types of thromboembolic disorders include SVT, DVT, and PE. 69. What is atony in the context of postpartum complications? A. A collection of blood within the tissues B. Inadequate healing of the vaginal tissues C. Inability of the uterus to contract properly after delivery D. Inflammation of the uterine lining Answer: Inability of the uterus to contract properly after delivery (C) Atony refers to the uterus's inability to contract, leading to potential hemorrhage. 70. What is the primary cause of early postpartum hemorrhage? A. Hematoma formation in the reproductive tract B. Failure of the uterus to contract adequately C. Infection of the uterine lining D. Trauma during childbirth Answer: Failure of the uterus to contract adequately (B) Uterine atony is identified as the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage. 71. What is the characteristic appearance of lochia rubra after childbirth? A. Dark brown and thick consistency B. Clear discharge with uterine tissue C. Bright red color with primarily blood D. Yellowish fluid with mucus Answer: Bright red color with primarily blood (C) Lochia rubra is characterized by its bright red color and is primarily made up of blood. 72. Which of the following describes puerperal sepsis? A. Collection of blood indicating trauma B. A form of severe blood loss C. A serious bacterial infection during the postpartum period D. Inflammation of the breast tissue Answer: A serious bacterial infection during the postpartum period (C) Puerperal sepsis is a significant infection that can occur after childbirth, requiring careful monitoring. 73. Which condition involves the uterus failing to return to its normal size and shape after childbirth? A. Thromboembolic disorder B. Subinvolution of the uterus C. Uterine atony D. Endometritis Answer: Subinvolution of the uterus (B) Subinvolution of the uterus refers to the failure of the uterus to properly decrease in size after delivery. 74. What is a common nursing intervention to prevent thromboembolic disorders in postpartum women? A. Monitoring lochia flow B. Providing analgesics for pain management C. Encouraging ambulation D. Administering immunizations Answer: Encouraging ambulation (C) Encouraging ambulation is crucial in preventing thromboembolic disorders in postpartum patients. 75. What does hypovolemic shock indicate in a postpartum patient? A. Excessive hydration due to fluid retention B. A normal physiological response post-delivery C. Inflammation of the uterus following delivery D. Severe blood loss leading to inadequate oxygen delivery Answer: Severe blood loss leading to inadequate oxygen delivery (D) Hypovolemic shock is a critical condition stemming from significant blood loss post-delivery. 76. What is a significant risk associated with uterine atony? A. Severe postpartum hemorrhage B. Bacterial infection of lymph nodes C. Increased chance of subinvolution D. Postpartum infection due to laceration Answer: Severe postpartum hemorrhage (A) Uterine atony is a known risk factor for severe postpartum hemorrhage, making it a critical concern. 77. Which of the following best describes a hematoma in the reproductive tract? A. An abnormal enlargement of the uterus B. A collection of blood within tissues due to trauma C. Bright red, clear liquid post-delivery D. A bacterial infection and inflammation Answer: A collection of blood within tissues due to trauma (B) A hematoma represents localized blood accumulation resulting from trauma in the reproductive area. 78. Which classification of an infant is defined as being born before 37 weeks of gestation? A. Low birth weight infant B. Preterm infant C. Early term infant D. Full-term infant Answer: Preterm infant (B) Preterm infants are specifically defined as those born before 37 weeks of gestation. 79. What is the term used for an infant who weighs less than 5 pounds, 8 ounces at birth? A. Preterm infant B. Low birth weight (LBW) infant C. Full-term infant D. Postterm infant Answer: Low birth weight (LBW) infant (B) Low birth weight (LBW) infants are those who weigh less than 5 pounds, 8 ounces at birth. 80. An infant born between 39 weeks and 40 weeks, 6 days is classified as which type of infant? A. Early term infant B. Late-term infant C. Preterm infant D. Full-term infant Answer: Full-term infant (D) Full-term infants are specifically identified as those born between 39 weeks and 40 weeks, 6 days. 81. What classification applies to an infant that is born beyond 42 weeks of gestation? A. Early term infant B. Postterm infant C. Full-term infant D. Late-term infant Answer: Postterm infant (B) An infant born beyond 42 weeks of gestation is classified as a postterm infant. 82. What is lochia rubra characterized by? A. Moderately heavy and red discharge B. Clear and watery discharge C. Odorless and brownish discharge D. Yellow and pasty discharge Answer: Moderately heavy and red discharge (A) Lochia rubra is the initial vaginal discharge after delivery, which is red and moderately heavy. 83. What action should be taken to prevent infection in a nursery setting? A. Using alcohol wipes on equipment B. Washing hands between handling different babies C. Wearing sterile gloves at all times D. Keeping windows open for ventilation Answer: Washing hands between handling different babies (B) Hand washing is the most reliable precaution available to prevent infection. 84. What is the purpose of RhoGAM administration? A. To increase blood transfusion effectiveness B. To prevent Rh incompatibility complications C. To promote faster healing of the umbilical stump D. To protect against jaundice in newborns Answer: To prevent Rh incompatibility complications (B) The Rh-negative woman should receive RhoGAM within 72 hours after the birth of an Rh-positive infant to prevent Rh incompatibility complications. 85. Which assessment is key in evaluating the condition of a newborn immediately after birth? A. Performing a complete physical examination B. Checking for congenital abnormalities C. Calculating the Apgar score D. Measuring weight and height Answer: Calculating the Apgar score (C) The Apgar score is a standardized method of evaluating the newborn's condition immediately after delivery. 86. What symptom may indicate complications in a preterm newborn? A. Bright yellow stool B. Bulging fontanelles C. Straining during pooping D. Soft and pasty stools Answer: Bulging fontanelles (B) Paleness, vomiting, and bulging fontanelles can indicate complications in a preterm newborn. 87. What should be done before initiating gavage feeding in a preterm infant? A. Feed the infant using a syringe B. Aspirate the stomach contents C. Check the infant's temperature D. Warm the feeding tube Answer: Aspirate the stomach contents (B) Before the feeding is started, the contents of the stomach should be aspirated to ensure tube placement. 88. What indicates normal stool characteristics for a breastfed infant? A. Bright yellow, soft, and pasty B. Green and watery C. Dark brown and firm D. Clay-like and odorless Answer: Bright yellow, soft, and pasty (A) The stool of a breastfed infant is typically bright yellow, soft, and pasty. 89. What parenting action can help stimulate an infant's breathing? A. Rubbing the infant's back B. Singing softly to the baby C. Moving the baby to a brighter light D. Gently tickling the toes Answer: Rubbing the infant's back (A) Gently rubbing the infant's back, ankles, or feet may stimulate the infant to breathe. 90. What is a potential adverse effect of severe jaundice in infants? A. Hyperglycemia B. Dehydration C. Kernicterus D. Constipation Answer: Kernicterus (C) Severe jaundice can cause kernicterus, an accumulation of bilirubin in the brain tissue, leading to serious damage. 91. What is a common symptom of necrotizing enterocolitis in newborns? A. Decreased appetite B. Bloody stools and abdominal distention C. Presence of bowel sounds D. Excessive crying Answer: Bloody stools and abdominal distention (B) Bloody stools, abdominal distention, diarrhea, and bilious vomitus are signs of necrotizing enterocolitis. 92. What might a return to bright red lochia rubra indicate? A. Signs of uterine infection B. Possible late postpartum hemorrhage C. Increase in blood pressure D. Normal healing process after delivery Answer: Possible late postpartum hemorrhage (B) A return to bright red lochia rubra after a period of normal progression can suggest a late postpartum hemorrhage. 93. What key symptom is associated with major depression in new mothers? A. Deep feelings of worthlessness B. Experiencing minor sleep disturbances C. Feeling joy about motherhood D. Normal appetite fluctuation Answer: Deep feelings of worthlessness (A) Major depression is marked by deep feelings of worthlessness and can include other symptoms such as guilt and sleep disruption. 94. How should an infant with bulging fontanelles be positioned to assist with drainage from the ventricles? A. On the side B. Flat on the back C. In a semi-Fowler's position D. In a sitting position Answer: In a semi-Fowler's position (C) To promote drainage from the ventricles after shunt placement, the child should be positioned in a semi-Fowler's position. 95. What is a common risk for children with cleft palate? A. Diabetes B. Severe respiratory issues C. Ear infections and dental disorders D. Developmental delays, exclusively Answer: Ear infections and dental disorders (C) Children with cleft palate are particularly at risk for ear infections and dental disorders. 96. What is the best initial intervention for managing hypovolemic shock? A. Administering IV fluids to maintain circulating volume B. Instructing the patient to rest completely C. Immediate blood transfusion without assessment D. Giving aspirin to thin the blood Answer: Administering IV fluids to maintain circulating volume (A) Medical management for hypovolemic shock begins with the administration of IV fluids to restore and maintain circulating volume. 97. Which reflex does the Moro reflex describe in a newborn? A. Latching on to breast instinctively B. Turning head toward touch on the cheek C. Crying in response to hunger D. Drawing legs up and fanning arms in response to a sudden jar Answer: Drawing legs up and fanning arms in response to a sudden jar (D) The Moro reflex is characterized by the infant drawing the legs up and fanning the arms when startled. 98. What is a sign that may suggest endometritis in a postpartum woman? A. Menstrual-like cramping and fever B. Consistent appetite without body discomfort C. Normal vaginal discharge without fever D. Vaginal discharge with a pleasant odor Answer: Menstrual-like cramping and fever (A) Severe cramping accompanied by fever can be indicative of endometritis, a common postpartum infection. 99. What might bulging fontanelles signify in an infant who has had a recent shunt placement? A. Increased fluid buildup in the brain B. Normal skull development C. Reduction in intracranial pressure D. Recovery from surgery Answer: Increased fluid buildup in the brain (A) Bulging fontanelles may indicate increased intracranial pressure or fluid buildup, necessitating further assessment. 100. What common characteristic might a breastfed newborn exhibit regarding stool after 48 hours of life? A. Golden-yellow, soft stools B. Dark, tarry stools C. No stool output at all D. Hard, pellet-like stools Answer: Golden-yellow, soft stools (A) Breastfed newborns typically exhibit golden-yellow, soft stools due to the nutritional content of breast milk.