H&R Correction PDF - Neurological Diagnostic Tests

CT angiography of cerebral blood vessels is indicated in case of a. Subarachnoid bleeding together with ischemic stroke, transient ischemic attack and cerebral parenchymal hemorrhage b. Epidural bleeding CT, MRI or EEG c. Meningitis or encephalitis d. Subdural bleeding IsSF CT angio...

CT angiography of cerebral blood vessels is indicated in case of a. Subarachnoid bleeding together with ischemic stroke, transient ischemic attack and cerebral parenchymal hemorrhage b. Epidural bleeding CT, MRI or EEG c. Meningitis or encephalitis d. Subdural bleeding IsSF CT angiography of cerebral blood vessels is contraindicated a. In pregnancy b. In patients with large intracranial aneurysm c. In patients with allergy to gadolinium No we use iodine. d. In patients with intracerebral bleeding Mark the correct statement regarding digital subtraction angiography (DSA) a. Is an invasive imaging method, which uses a contrast agent directly administered into arterial blood vessels b. Does not use any radiation during the examination c. During examination no contrast agent is used d. It is non-invasive cerebrovascular imaging method Mark the correct statement regarding digital subtraction angiography (DSA) a. no iodine contrast agent is used is used b. is not based on X-rays it is c. it is a diagnostic and therapeutic method d. is contraindicated in subarachnoid hemorrhage is in renal insufficiency and hypersensitivity to iodine contrast a. b. Mark a false statement regarding CT angiography Is perfomed in case of subarachnoid bleeding yes Is used in the diagnosis of cerebral aneurysms yes II c. Is used to assess carotid artery stenosis yes d. Is not recommended in patients with ischemic stroke it is recommended MR angiography (MRA) a. Is faster method compared to CT angiography b. Does not use radiation c. Gadolinium contrast is not contraindicated in pregnant women it is d. Is cheaper method compared to CT angiography  During MR angiography (MRA) a. Iodinated contrast agent is used CT angiography b. It is not possible to visualize the blood vessels without administration of a contrast agent c. The contrast medium is never used d. For more detailed blood vessel visualisation gadolinium may be used MR angiography is absolutely contraindicated a. In patients with allergy to iodine contrast agent with gadolinium b. In patients with implanted steel material c. In pregnant women d. In patients with renal insufficiency DSA a. Y Which EEG finding supports epileptic origin of the paroxysmal loss of the conciousness (epileptic seizure) Generalised theta b. Spike-wave complexes c. Predominant occipital alpha d. Frontal intermittent theta-delta EMG (electromyography): nerve conduction studies NCS show a. In the case of a demyelinating-axonal lesion, an increase in the conduction velocity through a given part of the nerve and an increase in the amplitude of the action potential o f b. In the case of a demyelinating-axonal lesion, a slowing down of the conduction velocity through a given part of the nerve and a decrease in the amplitude of the action potential During this period, a nerve conduction study of the distal portion will show only a mild decrease in amplitude and nearly normal conduction velocity c. In the case of a demyelinating-axonal lesion, a slowing down of the conduction velocity of a given part of nerve and a normal amplitude of the action potential d. In the case of demyelinating-axonal lesions, slowing down the conduction velocity through a given part of the nerve and increasing the amplitude of the action potential EMG (electromyography): nerve conduction studies - NCS show a. in axonal lesions we find a slowing of the conduction velocity of a given part of the nerve and a decrease in the amplitude of the action potential of the responses b. in axonal lesions a slowing of the conduction velocity of a given part of the nerve and an increase in the amplitude of the action potential of the responses c. in axonal lesions we find an increase in the conduction velocity of a given part of the nerve and a decrease in the amplitude of the action potential of the responses d. in the case of an axonal lesion, we find the normal conduction velocity of a given part of the nerve and a decrease in the amplitude of the action potential of the responses During this period, a nerve conduction study of the distal portion will show only a mild decrease in amplitude and nearly normal conduction velocity https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4329247/ slow axonal u Demy d APO I distallaterya HI IDO EMG (electromyography): nerve conduction studies - NCS show a. In a demyelinating lesion of the central motoneuron, a decrease in the amplitude of the action potential or complete loss of response b. In a demyelinating lesion of a peripheral nerve an increase in the conduction velocity through a given part of the nerve, with a normal amplitude of the action potential c. In the case of a demyelinating lesion of the peripheral nerve, a slowing down of the conduction velocity of a given part of the nerve and a normal amplitude of the action potential d. In a demyelinating lesion of the central motoneuron, a slowing down of the conduction velocity through a given part of the nerve and a decrease in the amplitude of the action potential https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/2725563/ 13. Central (upper) motor neuron lesion is characterised by a. Decreased muscle tone b. Hyperreflexia of tendon reflexes (other symptoms weakness, spasticity and clonus) c. Hyporeflexia of tendon reflexes d. Rigidity Glasgow coma scale evaluates: a. Eye-opening, verbal and Babinski responses b. Comprehension, verbal, motor respinsess c. Eye-opening, verbal, flection, extension responses d. Eye-opening, verbal, motor responses renders EMG (electromyography): nerve conduction studies NCS a. b. O Are used to measure action potentials abnormalities after stimulation of peripheral nerves Are used to measure action potentials abnormalities in suspected myopathy c. Are used to measure action potentials abnormalities after stimulation of peripheral nerves, registered above the spinal cord and cerebral cortex d. Are used to measure action potentials abnormalities in diseases affecting the neuromuscular junction https://www.mayoclinic.org/tests-procedures/emg/about/pac-20393913 2 EMG (electromyography) is an examination method that allows to locate a lesion a. At the level of the cerebral cortex and subcortical structures b. At the level of the brainstem c. In the central part of the spinal cord d. In the muscle or spinal cord, or in the spinal root, or plexus and peripheral nerve lect. P. 404 EMG (electromyography): method of needle EMG a. We insert a needle into the muscle and then we observe spontaneous muscle activity, in the next step voluntary activity muscle contraction b. Is used for measurement of skin conductivity by needle insertion c. We insert a needle into the given nerve and then we observe spontaneous muscle activity, in the next step voluntary activity muscle contraction d. We insert a needle into the muscle and then we take a muscle sample for histological examination Correct statement for needle EMG (electromyography) or Mark correct answer for needle EMG (electromyography) d a. Conductivity of a spinal cord ist measured after insertion of a needle m b. Needle is inserted into the particular muscle and spontaneous resting and voluntary activity of supplied muscle is observed c. Needle is inserted into the particular nerve and spontaneous resting and voluntary observed  d. Specimen of a muscle for histologic examination is taken by needle If pathological spontaneous activity is detected in the examined muscle by needle EMG (electromyography) a. It means denervation potential called pathological increment of action potentials b. It is a pathological decrement of action potentials c. It means denervation potentials called fibrillations and fasciculations v8 d. It means a myasthenic syndrome with a decrement of the amplitude of action potentials or EMG (electromyography) - needle EMG method: we observe in a case of myopathy a. myopathic pattern with prolongation of the response time of AP MU (action potential of motor units) b. myopathic pattern as an increase in the number of muscle fibers and an increase in the action potential of motor units as well as an increase in the amplitude of the response c. myopathic pattern as shortening the duration of the action potential of motor units and decreasing the amplitude of the response p. 412 d. a neuropathic pattern as action potentials called duplets and triplets a. myopathic pattern means reduced duration of motor units action b. myopathic pattern means prolonged duration of motor units action c. myopathic pattern means increased number of muscle fibers d. myopathic pattern action potentials called duplets or triplets utimefontp dFYamplinde Mark correct statement for needle EMG (electromyography) finding in case of myopathy: a. a motor response b. Myopathy pattern means increased number of muscle fibers c. Myopathic pattern m unpaid d. Myopathic pattern wrenn Pathological spontaneous muscles denervation activity verified by EMG (electromyography) means frequency presence of a. potentials called pathological decrement of action potentials Rhampinoh b. denervation potentials called pathological increment of action potentials É c. myastenic syndrome Alfa Fabomed d. denervation potentials called fibrillation or fasciculations Mark correct statement stabphassman g a. Spinal cord lesion can be manifested by homolateral hemiparesis example given is Brown Sequard HE b. Spinal cord lesion can be manifested by contralateral hemiparesis With a lesion in the brainstem, this affects the majority of limb and trunk muscles on the contralateral side due to the upper motor neurons decussation after the brainstem. c. Brainstem lesion can be manifested by homolateral hemiparesis d. Brain hemispheral lesion can be manifested by hormonal hemiparesis ij The evoked potentials - BAEP (Brainstem auditory EP) are used for at a. Detection of conduction disturbances in the trigeminal nerve b. Detection of conduction disturbances at the level of the spinal cord and brainstem Page c. Detection of conduction disturbances in the auditory tract d. Detection of conduction disturbances at the level of the medulla spinalis Syrinomyelia spinoffs ajii.it Gi  O Evoked potentials BAEP are used for: a. The detection of visual pathway disorders b. The detection of trigeminal nerve disorders c. The detection of medulla oblongata disorders d. The detection of auditory (hearing) pathway disorders in brainstem Evoked potentials: using SEP (somatosensory EP) we investigate a. The function of the optic pathway, especially the integrity of the optic nerve and optic chiazma b. The function of the sensitive pathway in its part of the peripheral nerve, spinal roots, spinal cord, brainstem and cerebral cortex c. The function of the olfactory and taste pathways simultaneously in the part of the peripheral nerve, brainstem and cerebral cortex d. Function of the auditory and vestibular pathway at the level of the brainstem, less used in cortical lesions Evoked potentials: SEP (somatosensory EP) a. in practice, stimulation of the vestibulocochlear nerve is most often used in SEP b. stimulation of the n. axillaris and n. peroneus is most often used in practice c. in the routine practice is mostly used stimulation of the median nerve and the optic nerve d. stimulation of the median nerve and tibial nerve is most often used in practice Evoked Potentials: SEP: impulses to peripheral n gap detectnumbing ofarm leg Q a. N. axillaris and peroneal nerve stimulation is the most often used in practice SEP evaluation b. Median nerve and tibial posterior nerve stimulation is the most often used in practice SEP evaluation c. Median nerve and optic nerve stimulation is the most often used in practice SEP evaluation 2 d. Vestibulocochlear and optic nerve stimulation is the most often used in practice SEP evaluation Evoked potentials: SEP are used for examination: a. Of olfactory pathway b. Auditory and vestibular pathway function on brainstem level, thalamus and parietal cortex c. Of visual pathway, mainly the optic nerve disorders VEP d. Of sensitivity pathway ranging from the peripheral nerve, spinal roots, spinal dorsal columns, brainstem, thalamus and cerebral parietal cortex The principle of the investigation of evoked potentials (EP) is a. Registration of the nerve impulse propagation in the neuromuscular junction, it is a response to a precisely defined stimulus from the peripheral nerve b. Registration of nerve impulse propagation in a well-defined muscle c. Registration of the nerve impulse propagation along a certain neural path, it is a response of nerve to a precisely defined stimulus ! chiedere opinione d. Registration of the nerve impulse propagation along the muscle, it is a response of the muscle to a precisely defined stimulus occipitallobe VEP - visual evoked potentials é impulse a longer pathway a. The physiological finding after eye stimulation is a complex of three waves - I., III. and V., corresponding to the conduction through the brainstem (N-P-N complex) b. The physiological finding after eye stimulation is a complex of five waves at the level of the brainstem (wave I.-V.), and we evaluate mainly the latency of the wave N1 c. The physiological finding after eye stimulation is a complex of three waves - N-P-N, of which the most imma important is the latency of the wave P100 p448 d. Physiological finding after eye stimulation is a complex of two responses - waves P25 and P40 in a typical N- P-N complex VEP - visual evoked potentials are mainly used for a. The detection of disorders of limb proprioception, especially median nerve b. The detection of visual disturbances in oculomotor disorders, especially a case of diplopia c. The detection of visual disturbances at the level of the spinal cord d. The detection of disorders of the optic pathway, especially part of the optic nerve VEP-visual evoked potentials are mainly used for or VEP visual evoked potentials are mainly used for: a. the detection of eye muscle weakness b. the detection of proprioceptive (deep sense) pathway disorder c. the detection of anterior and posterior visual pathway disorder mainy optic nerve disorder d. the detection of visual and hearing pathway disorder VEP Visual evoked potentials or VEP- visual evoked potentials a. We use blink reflex directly to stimulation Ht b. The text reading on the screen is used to Hyperproteinorachia highlevel seprotein ftp.gfechonmq a. Is characterised by an increased level of chloride in CSF hyperlymphocytosis b. Is never seen in patients with neuroinfections c. Can be present in patients with meningoencephalitis acute disseminated meningoencephalitis d. Is characterised by a decreased level of proteins in CSF hyper What are the indications of cerebrospinal fluid analysis? Yeomans IL a. Brain tumor medlineplus.gov; b. Skull fracture c. Ischemic stroke Itu retain Autoimmune d. Autoimmune encephalitis lecture; also meningitis, SAH, NS disease, Guillain Barre sy., pseudotumor cerebri e. Meningeal carcinomatosis Subarachnoidbleeding thrombocytopen a f. Multiple sclerosis g. Myelitis Brain oedema room dear What diseases lead to the positive intrathecal synthesis of Ig 1 a. Acute ischemic stroke Blood Red old Yellow Billinton b. Multiple sclerosis c. Parkinson disease a d. Alzheimer disease Mark correct answer O a. Spectrophotometric analysis of cerebrospinal fluid detects the presence of the blood in cerebrospinal fluid (SAH SubArachnoid Hemorrhage) b. Spectrophotometric analysis of cerebrospinal fluid is used in patients with suspected Alzheimer disease c. Spectrophotometric analysis of cerebrospinal fluid measures increased level of glucose d. Spectrophotometric analysis of cerebrospinal fluid is indicated in all patients with acute ischemic stroke  Paraneoplast 4 Mongdond MIMI Mark correct answer a. Positive oligoclonal bands (OCB) in cerebrospinal fluid are present in patients with Parkinson disease MO no b. CSF exmanination is indicated in all patients with epilepsy only myoclonus type NMS c. Positive oligoclonal bands (OCB) in cerebrospinal fluid are present in patients with ischemic stroke d. CSF exmanination is indicated in patients with suspision for the demyelinating disorders M.S OME Mark incorrect answer a. MRI is indicated in all patients with suspicion for myelitis b. MRI in comparison with CT is more sensitive in depicting bone tissue pathology c. MRI is contraindikated in patients with cardiostimulator d. MRI can also be used in children What is true about MRI? a. b. o MRI in comparison with CT is more sensitive in depicting soft tissue pathology MRI is contraindicated in patients with venrtikulo- peritoneal shunt c. Contrast agents used in MRI contain lodic compounds gadolinium d. MRI in comparison with CT is more sensitive in depicting bone tissue pathology For the patients with hemorrhagic stroke ( brain hemorrhage ) Mark correct answer: a. MRI is contraindicated in pregnancy for gadolinium b. MRI in comparison to CT is more c. O d. Contrast agents used in MRI contain iodium CT Mark correct answer TIMRI dark a. MRI is a gold standard for diagnosis of head injury CT Kray b. Brain MRI of patients with multiple sclerosis shows T1 hyperintense lesions o c. MRI is contraindicated in patients with iodine contrast allergy o d. Brain MRI of patients with multiple sclerosis shows T2/FLAIR hyperintense lesions Mark incorrect answer a. MRI is indicated in patients with suspected inflammatory effection of spinal cord b. brain MRI of patients with multiple sclerosis shows T1 hyperintense lesions To jam disease Mor Wagering c. MRI is indicated in patients with suspected demyelinating d. brain MRI of patients with multiple sclerosis shows T2 hyperintense lesions spinnicolmcBack On the plane X-ray we can see Headinjuy a. bones b. vessels consign c. brain haemorrhage ray gyyg.EE d. brain tumor Mark correct statement for functional psychogenic movement disorders a. their pattern is constant and doesnt change with distraction b. physiotherapy might help c. antipsychotics are used as a first-line treatment antidepressants or anxiolytic when necessary d. patient is malingering the sympotoms am psychromatid Osspinatalan MRI DrainHeading Braintumor kerchief Ams Stroy Brain Dementia infarct Magnetic resonance imaging a. Has no serious contraindications É b. Is strictly contraindicated in pregnancy for the gadolinium c. In T2 imaging visualizes hyperintense demyelinating lesions lesion is white (hyperintense) fat is gray; in T1 is the opposite me d. Is a faster and more accessible methodology compared to CT examination ct is faster Magnetic resonance imaging is the method of first choice a. In the diagnosis of acute cerebral hemorrhage at b. In the diagnosis of CNS demyelinating diseases Any c. In the diagnosis of acute ischemic stroke 1st multiple sclerosis d. In the diagnosis of epidural and subdural hemorrhage Magnetic resonance (MRI) a. As contrast medium is used iodide gadolinium III b. Displays demyelinating lesions in multiple sclerosis or dispalys demyelinating lesions in multiple sclerosis c. Has no contraindications metal implants or contrast allergy Oh Mylollong d. Is realized in all patients with stroke Mark correct answer a. The cerebrospinal fluid is displayed as hyperintense on the T2 and FLAIR b. The cerebrospinal fluid is displayed as hypointense on the T2-weighted MR image c. The cerebrospinal fluid is displayed as hyperintense on the T1-weighted MR image d. The cerebrospinal fluid is displayed as hyperintense on the T2-weighted MR image Mark the incorrect statement about sonography of extracranial vessels a. It is not used for diagnosis of acute ischemic stroke b. Can visualise atherosclerotic plaque, as well as assess the nature of a plaque Noninvasive c. It is a combination of both B-mode and doppler examination d. It is a non-invasive method, without radiation Mark the correct statement regarding B-mode sonography of extracranial vessels for Bloodied a. Can depict moving particles under the probe based on change of frequency of the reflected ultrasound waves T b. Can depict structures under the probe based on reflected ultrsound waves c. Can depict anechogenic structures such as fresh trombus in blood vessel d. Can determinate direction of moving particles, but not the speed of a blood flow Vertebral arteries a. they diverge directly from aortic arch b. they diverge from subclavian artery c. they diverge from common carotid artery MEEEE d. during physiological condition they supply the brain in around 50% of blood flow Diagnostic test measures and records tart a. Brain electrical activity - EEG - determine stage of sleep b. Eye and jaw muscle movement - Electrooculogram (EOG) determine stage of sleep c. Leg movements - EMG - determine wake period, arousal or just movements d. Airflow - determines the extent of apneic episodes e. Respiratory airflow - determine apnea/hypopnea during test  m f. ECG 18 g. O2 Saturation Transcranial sonography of cerebral arteries a. Basilar and vertebral arteries cannot be viewed through ultrasound The suboccipital window with the neck flexed, can be used to insonate the basilar and vertebral arteries. b. The examination is carried out through the so-called acoustic bone windows c. We cannot asses stenosis or occlusion of the middle cerebral artery we can d. We cannot asses spasms of the arteries of Willis circuit we can We routinely do not use duplex ultrasound exam of extracranial blood vessels O a. In patients with intracerebral bleeding Trans b. In patients with stroke in vertebrobasilar territory c. In patients with carotid artery dissection d. For control exam of patients after carotid artery stenting or carotid endarterectomy o Duplex USG (ultrasound) examination of extracranial brain vessels is not commonly used ????? a. for the control after carotid stenting b. for the patient with hemorrhagic stroke (brain hemorrhage) c. for the patient with ischemic stroke d. for the control after carotid surgery (carotid endarterectomy) Duplex ultrasound examination of extracranial blood vessels is contraindicated a. In patient after thyroid gland surgery b. Ultrasound has no major contraindication There are no specific contraindications to Duplex evaluation although patient tolerance may be limited in areas of inflammation or infection. c. In pregnancy In patients with allergy to iodine contrast agent Duplex sonography of extracranial brain vessels a. In pregnant women b Has no significant contraindication c. Is contraindicated in patients with allergy to iodinated contrast media d. Is contraindicated in patients in terminal stage of renal failure Which from the following statements is true considering Duplex ultrasound examination of extracranial: a. Uses mechanic vibration with frequency below 14 b. c. Uses B-mode and Doppler mode for display (of blood vessels) doppler for the velocity d. Which of the following statement is true considering duplex ultrasound examination of extracranial vessels: o a. uses mechanic vibration with frequency below 16KHz b. it is not possible to visualize atheroslerotic plaque or other blood vessel pathology c. it is an invasine neuroimaging method without radiation d. uses B mode and Doppler mode for dispaly of blood vessels  Routinely we use ultrasound examination in diagnosis of a. Brain tumors b. Movement disorders c. Back pain d. Cerebrovascular diseases Carotid sonography cannot reveal a. The presence of calcified plaques in common carotid artery o b. The course of vertebral arteries in the neck area c. The presence of a soft atherosclerotic plaque in the cervical part of internal carotid artery d. The presence of stenosis of internal carotid artery below the bifurcation Typical features of NREM sleep are not a. K-complexes, vertex sharp waves É win b. Delta frequency band solar c. Rapid eye movements d. Sleep spindels delta nap Theta Typical features of REM sleep are: theta a. sleep spindels complewtnespird b. muscle atonia, saw tooth waves start vertex Jetty c. vertex sharp waves d. K- complexes n GOD Typical feature of the NREM sleep are: a) sleeping which is often referred to as "slow wave," "delta" or "deep" sleep. b) k-komplex with pointy waves c) muscle atonia, saw tooth waves REM d) pointy waves Epidural bleeding on CT is seen as a. Hypodense semicircle lesion b. Hyperdense semcircle lesion c. Hyperdense biconvex lens-like shape lesion It is usually uniformly high density but may contain hypodensenfoci due to active bleeding d. Hypodense biconvex lens-like shape lesion Black after 81 hypoderse Mark the correct statement regarding brain ischemia and CT O a. In acute stage, ischemia of the brain may not be visible b. In acute stage, has a density as cerebrospinal fluid AtaxigIgackwar c. In acute stage, ischemia has a density as a bone d. In acute stage, brain ischemia is hyperdense Cerebellum mm Dysdiadochokinesis means a. Problem with aiming b. Problem with coordination between muscle groups in a more complex movement fygjd.gr c. Tremor of a limb before reaching the target d. Problem with rapid alternating movements intimate Which of the following is not a feature of cerebellar dysfunction? Extreme Dysart a. Dysphagia yes b. Oculomotor problems and nystagmus yes O DANISH Bag got  no c. Kinetic and intentional tremor yes d. Rigidity Cerebellar Dysfunction may present with a. Gait with narrow basis and decreased armswing b. Paresis extrapyramidal c. Passivity (decreased muscle tone) d. Hemihypesthesia Which of the following symptoms is a feature of neocerebellar syndrome? a. Hypermetria 50% condition of cerebellar dysfunction in which voluntary muscular movements tend to result in the movement of bodily parts (as the arm and hand) beyond the intended goal b. Passivity (lower muscle tone) yes (hypotonia) c. All statements are correct d. Oculomotor abnormalities yes Which of the following symptoms is not a feature of neocerebellar syndrome? a. Passivity (lower muscle tone) b. Oculomotor abnormalities c. Hypermetria d. Trunk assynergy of fine movements (also adiadochokinesis & intentional tremor) Jettimities Patients with cerebellar dysfunction typically fall a. To the contralateral side of the affected cerebellar hemisphere b. Backwards c. Forwards d. To the side of the affected cerebellar hemisphere Dysmetria means a. Problem with rapid alternating movements b. Problem with coordination between muscle groups in a more complex movement c. Tremor of a limb before reaching the target d. Problem with aiming Neocerebellum includes the a. Flocculonodular lobe archicerebellum b. Cerebellar hemispheres c. None statement is correct homolat d. Vermis only a part Lesions of the vermis will be primarily related to ataxia of a. Standing and walking "drunken sailor" gait characterised by uncertain starts and stops, lateral deviations and unequal steps b. Contralateral limbs c. Speech d. Ipsilateral limbs Mark the correct statement a. The internal carotid artery divides into the middle cerebral artery and anterior cerebral artery b. The internal carotid artery is a branch of the common carotis and most often bifurcation lies in a level C6 / C7 C4 o 4 c. The left internal carotid artery is a direct branch of aortic arch left subclavian a EmmancaropidImiddle  7 A L subclavian d. The right internal carotid artery is a branch of the brachiocephalicus truncus 50-50 there is first the common carotid Mark the correct statement about common carotid artery ÉÉfy a. It is a direct branch of aortic arch on the left side b. Subclavian artery is a branch of common carotid artery Imight c. It is a direct branch of the brachiocephalic trunk on the left side is on the right d. Its terminal branches are middle cerebral artery and anterior cerebral artery Which from following statement is true a. right common carotid artery diverge directly from aortic arch b. right internal carotid artery diverge from brachiocephalic trunk c. left internal carotid artery diverge directly from aortic arch d. right common carotid artery diverge from brachiocephalic trunk sea Which pathway crosses in the area of central spinal canal (comissura alba anterior)? a. Pathway for deep sensitivity b. Pathway for temperature spinothalamic tract lateral c. Corticospinal tract d. No track crosses there Neuropathic pain a. Is not presented in diabetic patients or in case of trigeminal neuralgia b. Is well treated by common analgesics/painkillers 5 c. Can apper in lesion of both the central and peripheral nervous systems n Y d. Does not respond well to anticonvulsants Neurophatic pain: a. is only related to cns damage / eg. Stroke, multiple sclerosis also diabetes and shingles b. anticonvulsant and antidepressant have fine effect u c. does not occur in neuralgia of trigeminal nerve d. it respond well to common painkillers in case of early treatment subgueding What diagnoses are presented by meningeal syndrome? Which disorder typically manifests by 900 meningeal syndrome? a. Myelitis b. Polyradiculoneuritis meningitis c. Multiple sclerosis d. Subarachnoidal bleeding also cancer cells and substances from the breakdown of cancer cells that get into CSF 69. Neurophatic pain: a. Is only related to cns damage / eg. Stroke, multiple sclerosis b. Anticonvulsant and antidepressant have fine effect antidepressants yes c. Does not occur in neuralgia of trigeminal nerve it is correlated d. It respond well to common painkillers in case of early treatment Teach Isolated defect in deep sensitivity occurs within a. Lesion of the posterior columns tabifoots b. Lesion of lateral columns c. Lesion in the area of the central spinal canal d. Lesions of anterior spinal artery An abnormal painful sensitive perception is called a. Allodynia neurogenic b. Hyperpathy pain c. Dysesthesia abnormal sensation d. Paraesthesia numbness Bradykinesia means a. Deceleration of repeated movements decrement of their frequency b. Decreased amplitude of movements slownessmovement c. Difficulties to initiate voluntary movements d. Deceleration and instability of a gait takinga Parkinsonian syndrome is a. Resting tremor in combination with rigidity and/or bradykinesia b. Action tremor in combination with rigidity and/or bradykinesia c. Bradykinesia in combination with rigidity and/or resting tremor d. Rigidity in combination with resting tremor and/or bradykinesia Typical sign of parkinsonian syndrome is a. Postural tremor b. Intentional tremor c. Action tremor d. Resting tremor Typical tremor in Parkinsons disease is (typical temporal Parkinsons disease is) a. Intentional b. Resting c. Postural d. Kinetic Which of the following statements are true for rigidity? a. It is a consequence of tremor b. Rigidity is dependent on speed of pasive movements resistance is higher with slower movements muscle tone not depend on speed (lecture p.195) c. Rigidity is dependent on speed of pasive movements resistance is higher with slower movements d. Rigidity worsens with co-activation of contralateral limbs Mark INCORRECT statement for rigidity Prest a. Is increased by any movements of a contralateral limb b. Occurs in disease takermove Passingement same during c. Occurs in atypical parkinsonian syndromes d. Depends on velocity of a passive movement of a limb isthe Upper brainstem lesion manifests as or Upper brainstem lesion is manifests as: a. Only deep sensation deficit on contralateral side of the body b. Only superficial sensation deficit on contralateral side of the body c. Deficit of both sensation modalities on contralateral half of body including the face. d. Deficit of both sensation modalities on contralateral half of body and homolateral half of the face. Brainstem faced in it nut Homolat towerneuron Baty upperneeds contralat  Which of the following is pathognomonic for functional tremor? particular sign a. Tremor changes character or disappears with mental or motor distraction b. None of the statements is true c. Tremor gets worse with mental or motor distraction d. Distraction does not make any difference in character or amplitude of functional tremor Y Which of the following belongs to hyperkinetic movement disorders? a. Hypokinesia b. Bradykinesia c. Rigidity Fetzer resting stroma s4Yftn twisting FEFoconusjerky of d. Myoclonus include tremors, dystonia, chorea, tics, myoclonus, stereotypies, restless legs syndrome, and various other disorders with abnormal involuntary movements. overflow dystonia mategepatten Hypokinetic movement disored is a. Myoclonus b. Dystonia Ballism c. Parkinsonism choreaflimbs d. Chorea prox Chorea is a. A simple jerky movement b. Occurs with low dopamine brain levels c. The d. An involuntary unpredictable complex hyperkinetic movement Chorea is defined as or a. Problems with coordination of movements b. Complex involuntary , often twisting movements that do not have a typical pattern and are unpredictable movement c. Complex patterned twisting movements or postures d. Simple jerky movements Autoimmune chorea is typical for which age? a. Infancy b. Late adulthood median age (range (18-87) c. Adolescence d. Prevalence is the same in every age The most common genetic disorder primarily associated with chorea is a. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease b. y c. d. Which of the following statements are NOT 9 IEEE a. Freezing of gait is often not very responsive to dopaminergic medication 0 b. Freezing usually affects all types of locomotion, not only automatic walking c. It is a problem with automatic walking, voluntary walking is spared d. Patients are able to overcome freezing by using different sensory tricks  Parkinson 1 Rest CerebellarDontensiorlkinetio Postural and kinetic tremor is most commonly associated with a. in parkinsonism 8th'm ntid b. Stroke c. Essential tremor Taken d. Cerebellar dysfunction mthmic a. Resting tremor b. Rigidity c. Chorea d. Bradykinesia parkinsonism i Symptoms, which is absolutely necessary for diagnosis of parkinsonism (present in 100% patients) a. rest tremor b. rigidity Resting(parkinsonian) 80 c. postural instability Postural(essential, physiological, drug-induced) d. bradykinesia Kinetic/intentional(cerebellar) Intentional tremor is typical for att a. b. Stroke c. Cerebellar dysfunction neocerebellar syndrome d. Essential tremor In lesion of left n.II Because its sensosry! a. On the left side is not present direct FR and on the right side is not present consensual FR b. On the left side is present direct FR and on the right side is not present consensual FR c. On the left side is not present direct FR and the right side is present consensual FR OPINIONE d. On the left side is present direct FR and on the right side is present consensual FR In lesion of right n.III Direct on one eye, consensual in opposite eye, sensory - optic a. On the right side is present direct FR and consensual FR (photo reaction)on the left side , motor oculomotor. b. On the right side is present direct FR and on the left is not present consensual FR c. On the right side is not present direct FR and on the left is not present consensual FR A light shining in the right eye will also lead to a monocular pupillary constriction in the right eye and not the left eye. d. On the right side is not present direct FR and on the left side is present consensual FR Complete oculomotor nerve (n.III) palsy on the left side is manifested with: Director a. Absence of consensual pupillary light reaction on the right eye b. Absence of direct pupillary light reaction on the left eye c. Absence of consensual light pupillary reaction on the left side a 00 confessed d. Absence of direct pupillary light reaction on the right eye 215. Oculomotor nerve palsy on left side manifestations a. Divergent strabism 8b. Mydriasis N c. Light reflex direct O d. Light reflex indirect If lesion is located in brain stem, sensitivity deficits follows a. If lesion is located in nc. Tractus spinalis deficit in sensation is controlateral b. If lesion is located in nc. Tractus spinalis deficit in sensation has patter of onion c. If lesion is located in upper part of brainstem deficit in sensation is located on Stg d. If lesion is located in upper part of brainstem deficit in sensation is.. What method is used for objective measurement of hearing impairment? Which methode is used for objective measurement of hearing impairment or which metod is used for objective measurement of hearing impairment ? or Which method is used for objective measurement of hearing impairement a. Perimetry examination b. Snellen´s optotypes c. Electronystagmography (ENG) d. Audiometric examination The lesion of the cochlear nerve is manifested by a. Nystagmus to the opposite side of the cochlear nerve lesion b. Dizziness and vomitus Jest c. Imbalance, especially manifestation of vestibular ataxia ipsilaterally d. Hearing deficit - from hypacusis to anacusis If we find a smooth nasolabial line on one side during a neurological examination of the facial nerve innervation and a drop of mouth angle it means a. Central type of trigeminal nerve lesion the lower branch b. Central type of facial nerve (n. VII) lesion c. Peripheral type of facial nerve (n.VII) lesion d. Both, central and peripheral type of facial nerve (n.VII) lesion Vestibular ataxia in the peripheral vestibular syndrome a. The patient has tonic deviations of the limbs on the side of the affected vestibular apparatus, it is also I called "vestibular harmonic syndrome" opinione b. The patient has deviated limbs to the opposite side of the affected vestibular apparatus, this condition is also called "vestibular harmonic syndrome" c. The patient has deviated limbs to the opposite side of the affected vestibular apparatus, this condition is also called "vestibular dysharmonic syndromea" d. Is not manifested by imbalance, only nausea and inability to recognize sounds is present Vestibular (n.VIII) nerve a. Conduct information from receptors in the labyrinth b. Conducts informations about waves coming into the ear c. Conducts information from the labyrinth rostrally through the posterior spinal cord d. Conducts information from the brainstem to the auditory cortical perception area Vestibular nerve: a. Leads informations from receptoric organ labyrinth (sacculus, utriculus, canales semicirculares) b. Leads informations from spinal dorsal columns c. Leads informations from middle ear brainstem (pons) then the info go to the cerebellum d. Leads informations of acustic waves coming into the ear bases on the position of head in relation with the body In the facial nerve (n.VII) lesions, innervation of facial muscles, upper branch, is clinically manifested by a. Inability to close the eye, raise eyebrows and wrinkle the forehead on the side of the lesion b. Inability to open the eye and raise eyebrows on the side of the lesion c. Inability to wrinkle the forehead and brush the teeth on the side of the lesion d. Inability to open the eye, raise eyebrows and wrinkle the forehead on the side of the lesion  Facial nerve (VII) lesion peripheral type is manifested with or Facial nerve lesion periphrel type is manifested with: A. unability to open eye and having reduced nasolabial wrinkle on the ipsilateral side and mouth B. Mouth angle drop is present on contralateral side C. Bilateral loss of facial mimic movements and taster perception deficit d. Unability to make forehead wrinkles, elevate eyebrow, close the eye and nasolabial wrinkle is re.. mouth angle drop is present, and related to lesion localization, also taste deficit can be present Peripheral type of facial nerve (n.VII) lesion is manifested by a. a thirds on both sides there is a complete loss of facial mimics and taste perception on the anterior two of the tongue b. inability to wrinkle the forehead, raise the eyebrows and close the eye, there is a drop of mouth angle and the perception of taste may also be reduced c. a on the contralateral side there is an inability to wrinkle the forehead, raise the eyebrows and close the eye, there may also be a drop in the mouth angle d. inability to open the eye, ptosis, smoothed nasolabial line the same side and there is a decrease in the mouth angle depending on the location of the lesion there may be a taste disorder Facial nerve (VII) lesion peripheral type is manifested with a. b. mouth angle drop is present on contralateral side c. bilateral lost of facial mimic movements and taster perception deficyt d. unability to make forehead wrinkles, ele deficyt can be present The facial nerve (n.VII) innervates or Facial nerve (n. VII) innervates: 43 a. Taste ipsilaterally, of the anterior third of the tongue b. Taste contralaterally, a half of the tongue c. Taste ipsilaterally, dorsal part of the tongue d. Taste ipsilaterally, anterior two thirds of the tongue chorda tympani Which part of a tongue is innervated by the Facial nerve (n. VII) regarding the taste? (neuro1) chorda tympani a. Ipsilateral posterior third of a tongue b. Ipsilateral anterior third of a tongue c. Contralateral half of a tongue d. Ipsilateral anterior two thirds of a tongue The facial nerve (n. VII) is a mixed nerve and contains fibers a. Sensory for taste, smell, motor and sensitive fibers innervating the face Da b. Sensory for taste, smell, vegetative for salivation, and motor for sense of face c. Vegetative (salivation, tearing) and motor for innervation of the face, especially the oculomotor muscles d. Sensory for taste, vegetative (salivation, tearing), motor innervating face and sensitive Damage to the vestibular nerve manifests as a. Deafness, vestibular ataxia and at the same side ipsilateral vision loss b. Fever, meningeal syndrome, nausea and vomiting c. Nausea, vomiting, vertigo and spinal ataxia d. Nausea, vomiting, vertigo, nystagmus and vestibular ataxia  side fangtolesi teddyÉf Lesion to the XII. cranial nerve on the left side manifests as a. Atrophy and fasciculations of the whole tounge a I b. Aphasia c. Hypotrophy of the left half of the tongue, paralysis of the left half of the tongue, tip of the tounge deviates to the left side d. Hypotrophy of the right half of the tongue, paralysis of the right half of the tongue, tip of the tounge deviates to the right side PL In case of bulbar paralysis the in the brain lesion is located 9 9am.FI a. In the medulla oblongata opinione b. In the right cerebral hemisphere Cata tts aEEigg c. In both cerebral hemispheres d. In dorsal midbrain Choose the correct statement n a. The vagus nerve carry the parasympathetic fibers ataxia is b. The vagus nerve carry the sympathetic fibers c. The vagus nerve carry both parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers f d. The vagus nerve does not carry any fibers of the autonomic nervous system Peripheral palsy is characterized by a. Rigidity no Ygarth b. Spasticity central palsy c. Fasciculations p. 124 dysphagia d. Babinski sign is present central palsy e. Hyporeflexia/areflexia p. 124 f. central 0 Mark incorrect statement about plegia a. It can be caused be a lesion of a lower motor neuron completeloss b. It can be caused be a lesion of an upper motor neuron combecentrallperiphed c. I p.116 0 d. I motor. o Body of the lower motor neuron which innervates the limbs lies in a. Anterior roots of spinal cord b. Posterior horn of spinal cord c. Anterior horn of spinal cord d. Posterior roots of spinal cord Mark incorrect statement about paresis a. It can be caused be a lesion of an upper motor neuron b. plegia c. It can be caused be a lesion of a lower motor neuron d. correct Body of the upper motor neuron lies in a. Precentral gyrus opinione b. Supplementary motor cortex c. Internal capsule d. Postcentral gyrus parietal sensory  Paraparesis/ paraplegia means the weakness of or paraparesis/paraplegia means the weakness of a. Lower limbs b. Right/left limbs c. All four limbs incomplete loss of spontaneous movement in the 2 upper or lower limbs dictionary; paraplegia complete loss of bilateral spontaneous movem. Of lower limbs (rarely upper) Y d. Upper limbs Hemiparesis/hemiplegia means the weakness of a. All four limbs b. Lower limbs E c. Right/left limbs p. 117 d. Upper limbs Mark incorrect statement about spasticity a. Is caused by the lesion of the upper motor neuron b. Physiotherapy is effective c. Is associated with increased deep-tendon reflexes 4158 d. Deep brain stimulation is therapy of a choice opinione Inferior a. flaccid hemiparesis on the limbs b. protruded tongue deviates to the ipsilateral side to the lesion c. d. O central palsy of n.VII. 10 12 protruded tongue deviates to the contralateral side to the lesion is for motoric and sensory contralateral disturbs of the trunk limbs. WO a. divergent strabismus partial ptosis b. c. A miosis mydriasis ptosis flaccid hemiparesis on the limbs d. loss of a smell (anosmia) a Ptosis is present in a. n. II b. n.III c. n.V in i Divergent stabism is present in lesion of or divergent strabism: a. n. IV b. n. III c. n. Vi d. chiazma opticum convergent strabismus is present in lesion of a. n. IV b. n. VI c. chiasma opticum d. n. III Peripheral lesion of n.VII cranial nerve is present in a. Inferior alternating hemiplegia hypoglossal n.  b. It does not occur with any syndrome c. Middle alternating hemiplegia abducens n. d. Superior alternating hemiplegia oculomotor n. a. Middle alternating hemiplegia Millard- b. Syndrome does not exists c. Inferior alternating hemiplegia d. Superior alternating hemiplegia Inferior alternating hemiplegia is called: a. Millard b. Jackson II syndrome c. Weber syndrome d. a. Protruded tongue is deviated to contralateral side O Which of following findings is (or is not?) present in inferior alternating hemiplegia if ask the NOT correct isnot b. Protruded tongue is deviated to ipsilateral side if ask the CORRECT c. Ipsilateral lesion of n. XII is present d. Contralateral hemiplegia is present Boom Mark correct answer (no correct answer) a. spectrophotometric analysis of cerebrospinal fluid is used in pat.. b. c. d. is used in xanthochromia and subarachnoid hemorrhage In the case of Weber 's syndrome, the lesion is located in a. Medulla oblongata b. Thalamus c. Pons Millard d. Midbrain no Weber's syndrome is characterized by a. Contralateral III. nerve palsy and contralateral hemiparesis b. Hemiparesis is not present c. Ipsilateral III. nerve palsy and Ipsilateral hemiparesis fogOccipital brain0herniation (occipital conus) d. Ipsilateral III. nerve palsy and contralateral hemiparesis a. Occurs when frontal lobe moves down into the foramen occipitale magnum 8 b. c. Can lead to the compression of medulla oblongata Is clinically silent with no symptoms d. Is present in patients with transversal myelitis Transtentorial brain herniation (temporal conus) supretentorial a. is manifested by loss of the consciousness and contralateral mydriasis b. occurs with the lesions localised in the infratentorial space Central spFF mass uncus  c. is a benign sign of meningeal syndrome d. occurs when the uncal area is moved downward through the tentorium cerebelli e. Is manifested by loss of the consciousness and ipsilateral mydriasis the loss of consciousness is due a O animal sting Transtentorial brain herniation (temporal conus) a. Is manifested by loss of the consciousness and ipsilateral mydriasis b. Is manifested by loss of the consciousness and bilateral c. Occurs when the cerebellar tonils move downward d. Temporal (uncal, transtentorial) herniation manifests with: a. Anisocoria: mydriasis of controlater pupil b. Anisocoria: mydriasis of ipsilateral pupil c. Contralateral hemianesthesia, dysesthesia d. Ipsilateral hemiparesis Intracranial hypertension syndrome is associated with: a. Headache V g b. Edematous optic nerve disc (papilla) in fundoscopy T i 6 c. Often present vegetative symptoms (nausea, vomitus) d. Vital indication and compulsory investigation of CSF via lumbar tap What are the causes of intracranial hypertension syndrome ? a. Multiple sclerosis b. Polyradiculoneutitis Causes c. Alzheimer disease d. Brain abscess x What are the causes of intracranial hypertension syndrome ? a. Lacunar ischemic stroke severe b. Optic neuritis c. Myelitis d. Brain tumor Frequent causes of intracranial hypertention syndrome are: a. Brain tumors b. Encephalitis É c. Haemorrhagic stroke d. Optic neuritis Mark correct answers _w a. Kernig sign is positive when a flexion of the neck causes involuntary flexion of the knee and hip b. Meningeal syndrome can be present in patients with subarachnoidal bleeding arty c. Brudzinski sign is positive when when extension of upper limbs causes involuntary flexion of the knee and hip d. Neck opposition isLnot a clinical feature of the meningeal syndrome w opistotonussikering A Brodzinski Opistotonis  by O A lesion of half of the spinal cord (right or left) at the level of the spinal cord segment C3, is manifested a. Mixed (flaccid and spastic) hemiparesis ipsilaterally neck Respirator LL Cy Cy central OccVETS Tha my b. Flaccid hemiparesis ipsilaterally c. Contralateral spastic hemiparesis d. Spastic hemiparesis ipsilaterally Wthr That a Bilateral pyramid tract lesion in C3 level of spinal cord presents with a. b. spastic quadruparesis/quadruplegia POLLThis spastic paresis of both upper limbs and flaccid or mixed paresis of both lower limbs 13 Stepsister c. mixed paresis of both upper and lower limbs 1124 d. flaccid or mixed paresis of both upper limbs and spastic paresis of both lower limbs set Ibladd 82855Conus O half side spinal cord lesion in c3 presented with or Half spinal cord lesion in C3 spinal cord lesion in C3 presents with: level presents with or Half a. ipsilateral spastic hemiparesis and respiratory problems full paralysis of limbs b. contralateral spastic hemiparesis c. contralateral flaccid hemiparesis d. ipsilateral flaccid hemiparesis o O A lesion of half of the spinal cord (right or left) at the level of the Th8 spinal cord segment is manifested by a. sensory disturbance below the lesion site ipsilaterally due to deep sensitivity and spastic monoparesis 489g i of LL ipsilaterally b. quadruparesis and impaired perception of deep sensitivity c. sensitivity disturbance below the lesion site ipsilaterally for superficial and less also for deep sensitivity and LL monoparesis d. spastic or mixed contralateral monoparesis of the lower limb O A complete transversal spinal cord lesion at the level of the C2-3 segment is manifested by a. Flaccid quadruparesis TER b. Bulbar syndrome c. Spastic quadruparesis d. Flaccid hemiparesis Bulbar syndrome manifests with: a. Aphasia dsphagia Dyash In b. Dysartria - more c. Tongue fasciculations d. Positive sucking reflex É Half spinal cord lesion (right or left) at the level of the C5 spinal cord segment is manifested by or Half side (right or left) spinal cord lesion at the level of C5 a. Contralateral hemiparesis flaccid or mixed in UL, and spastic in LL main b. Contralateral spastic paraparesis G Tha c. Ipsilateral spastic hemiparesis in the repeated question was chosen this option 0 d. Ipsilateral hemiparesis, flaccid or mixed in UL, spastic in LL e d gÉ  C5 Th2 UL Mixed In case of complete transversal spinal cord lesion in level C5 which of following cannot be present or In case of complete transversal spinal cord lesion in level C5 which of following can not be present or In case of complete transversal spinal cord lesion in C5 level, which of following cannot be present: O a. b. quadriparesis flaccid of mixed on upper limbs, spastic on lower limb quadriplegia c. spastic quadriparesis Mited d. defect of deep and superficial sensation below lesion Regarding C5 radiculopathy, which of the following statements is correct? J a. Pain is localised to the medial aspect of arm, forearm and the third digit t b. Pain is localised to the lateral aspect of arm should c. Sensory deficit is localised to the fourth and fifth digits e f d. There is weakness of forearm extension t ca A complete transversal spinal cord lesion at the level of Th10 segment is manifested by a. Ipsilateral spastic paraparesis of LL with impaired sphincter control b. Impairment of only superficial sensitivity below the lesion c. Disorder of sphincter control disorder of superficial sensitivity below the lesion on both sides and paraparesis of LL d. Brown-Séquard syndrome below the Th10 level with sphincter control disorder O In the case of half spinal cord (right or left) lesion in the level of Th10 which of following is not present a. homolateral spastic monoparesis of lower limb b. superficial ipsilateral sensation deficit below the lesion c. superficial contralateral sensation deficit below the lesion d. brown sequard syndrome a. Spastic paraparesis of lower limbs o b. Sphincter disorders c. Flaccid (or mixed) paraparesis if lower limbs r d. Sensation deficit o a. ipsilateral spastic monoparesis Complete dysfunction at a focal site between the T3 and L3 spinal cord Mit segments. Spastic paraplegia with reflex support if held up in a standing position but no voluntary pelvic limb or tail movement THEY b. flaccid paraparesis of lower limbs c. contralateral flaccid monoparesis d. ipsilateral flaccid monoparesis of lower limb Digital subtraction angiography (DSA) is not used for diagnosis of a. the source of epidural bleeding 99% sure b. extracranial stenoses of blood vessel gold standard for renal a. stenosis c. intracranial bleeding d. intracranial stenoses of blood vessel  I Which of the following statement is not true (DSA- digital subtraction angiography) a. DSA uses Xray radiation of b. DSA is not using X-ray radiation c. In DSA iodine contrast medium is used d. In DSA diagnostic catheter is inserted, most commonly through femoral ar. Digital subtraction angiography (DSA) a. Is imagining technique without X Ray radiation b. Is imagining technique in which iodine contrast medium is not used c. Is invasive diagnostic method of brain arteries d. Is the least invasive imaging technique for display of brain arteries Which finding does not belong to ictal/interictal epileptic abnormality? a. focal rhytmic theta activity b. c. d. K-complexes o t focal epileptic discharges- spike and wave complexes generalized discharges of spike-wave complexes The EMG (electromyography) method, called STEMG (repetitive nerve stimulation EMG), is used in a case of suspected a. myelopathy - there is pathological decrement of the amplitude of the action potential of the response Aveedle b. myasthenic syndrome there is pathological decrement of the action potential amplitudes in the repeated muscle response In c. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis - there is pathological increment of the amplitude of the action potential of the muscle response d. myopathy - there is pathological decrement of the velocity of the muscle response a Evoked potentials: BAEP (Brainstem auditory EP) - the most common pathological findings are it a. complete absence of V. wave, or prolonged latency of I. wave b. complete absence of some evoked response (wave), or prolonged latency of wave I., III. or V. - maybe c. complete absence of N20 wave or prolonged latency of N20 wave d. complete absence of wave IV. or prolonged latency of IV. Wave Latvertricle Mark correct answer a. cerebrospinal fluid flows from the third ventricle through cerebral aqueduct into the fourth star ventricle before there are choroid plx, lateral ventr., monro foramen and then 3rd ventr. quaddacan b. cerebrospinal fluid is predominantly secreted in the fourth ventricle lateral ventricles c. most of the cerebrospinal fluid volume is present within subdural space ventricular & Tagged subarachnoidal compartments d. the mean cerebrospinal fluid volume is 800ml 150ml, 25ml in ventricles and 125ml in am.EE subarachnoid spaces Mark correct answer a. b. 0 And spectrophotometric analysis of CSF can not confirm the diagnosis of subarachnoidal bleeding lymphocytic pleocytosis is present predominantly in patients with viral meningitis c. hyperproteinorachia combined with increased count of polymorphonuclear cells is present in I did patients with viral infections of central nervous system typical for bacteria d. hyperproteinorachia combined with an increased count of cells is called proteino-cytological  inhamoio.net's akygggdahdniaprokin wansaramm Y.IE EEInti oullianbame diabetionempathy dissociation pppanany opactInfection compressive froinsundrome Mark correct answer. a. Hyperproteinorachia combined with increased count of polymorphonuclear cells is present in central nervous system b. Hyperproteinorachia combined with increased count of cells is called protein-cytological d O c. Lymphocytic pleocytosis is present in patients with viral meningitis d. Protein- cytological association is present in patients AIDP (acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy) Bactintel a Brain MRI is essential in diagnosis of or Brain MRI is the first choice for: a. haemoragic stroke b. multiple sclerosis c. skull fracture d. head injuries i Mark the correct statement regarding Doppler effect or Which from the following statement considering Doppler affect is true a. If the blood moves towards the probe, the frequency of the reflected wave does not change toward b. Based on Doppler effect, we do not measure the frequency of reflected wave c. If the blood moves towards the probe, the frequency of the reflected wave decreases Redshift g d. If the blood moves towards the probe, the frequency of the reflected wave increases opinione Mark the false statement regarding Doppler effect AwayBIeshift O D a. Based on Doppler effect we do not asses frequency of reflected wave b. If the blood moves towards the probe, the frequency of the reflected wave increases c. If the blood moves away from the probe, the frequency of the reflected wave decreases pas d. Based on Doppler effect, we can determine the direction and speed of particles within blood vessel Brain CT is not a method of choice in diagnosis of a. Multiple sclerosis b. Acute ischemic stroke MRI c. Epidural bleeding d. Hemoragic stroke What density has an acute intracerebral bleeding on CT 9 white t a. Hypodense, comparing to brain tissue b. Desnity as cerebrospinal fluid c. We cannot see acute intracerebral bleeding on CT d. Hyperdense, comparing to brain tissue CT density 30-80 hu Which of the following is a typical feature of palleocerebellar syndrome? a. All statements are correct b. Ataxia of stance and gait vermis c. Trunk assynergy d. Falls, usually backwards Which of the following symptoms is typical for a neocerebellar disorder? a. Spasticity b. Myoclonus c. Limb hypometria d. Limb hypermetria  Cerebellarhemispheres homolat Cerebellar disorder manifests: a. At contralateral side of a body b. By bradykinesia a c. At ipsilateral side of a body x peripheralvestibular d. By vestibular ataxia Which of the following does not belong to the cerebellar symptoms? a. Intentional tremor (also kinetic) b. Dysarthria (also ataxic, scanning, speech) c. Balance problems d. Paresis Hemisphere Extrapyrams Nagebellom Archicerebellum includes the y vermis a. None statement is correct Palecereb b. c. d. Cerebellar hemispheres Neocerebellum Flocculonodular lobe Vermis Neocerebellum Arch Flow D Fate Willis circle is formed by a. anterior communicating artery also two anterior cerebral, the two internal carotid, the two post. communicating, and proximal segments of the two post. cerebral aa. b. vertebral arteries c. middle meningeal artery d. perforating arteries Mark the correct statement a. anterior communicating artery connects both anterior cerebral arteries b. posterior cerebral artery is most commonly a branch of internal carotid artery t.mn iii c. middle cerebral artery supplies mainly the medial part of the frontal and parietal lobe III d. posterior communicating arteries are terminal branches of the basilar artery middle Mark correct statement pray a. Primary motor cortex is localized in praecentral gyrus b. Corticospinal pathway has 2 neurons Modem c. Motor funiculus represents specific part of the body over the night d. Corticospinal pathway passes through external capsule D Syringomyelic dissociation of sensitivity occurs within Abasing a. Lesion to spinothalamic tract in the area of central spinal canal Aw b. Lesion to the dorsal horn of spinal cord c. Lesion to the thalamus d. Lesion to the posterior collumns of spinal cord Syringomyelic dissociation of sensitivity is manifested by a. Damage of deep-, pain- and thermic sensitivity painted trapdoor b. Lesion of pain and thermic sensitivity c. Lesion of deep sensitivity - no d. It is not manifested by sensitivity disorder finger  Syringomyelic dissociation? sensory loss; Dissociated sensory loss is a pattern of neurological o damage caused by a lesion to a single tract in the spinal cord which involves preservation of fine touch and o proprioception with selective loss of pain and temperature syringomyelic sensation deficit occurs when lesion is located in a. Dorsal spinal columns Loss of fine touch and proprioception are due to damage to the dorsal columns, b. Anterior half of spinal cord c. Dorsal spinal roots d. Nucleus posterolateralis ventralis thalami loss of pain and temperature in lateral spinothalamic tract In case of brainstem lesion, which of following statement is not true regar.. a. when lesion is located in lower part of medulla, temperature and.. b. so sensory deficit is present on face c. when lesion is located in upper part of brainstem superficial and contralateral half of face d. when lesion is located in upper part of brainstem superficial and.. Hadvations Which of the following statements is true for fluctuation in Parkinso Motor a. They are most severe at the beginning of the disease b. They typically occur and worsen over the course of the disease changeability c. Motor fluctuations typically do not respond to any therapeutic interventions fo move d. Hyperkinetic features (dyskinesia), such as chorea, are never part of motor fluctuations onoff'times no 2g Anterior spinal artery syndrome is not manifested by a. Bowel and urogenital problems Respondto b. Lesion of dorsal collumn pathway opinione therapy'Conition c. d. Motor paralysis below the lesion Lesion of spinothalamic pathway ant. spinal cord g Walk Symptoms of thalamic syndrome consists of: a. Hemianosmia I think that there is a typing mistake hemianopsia opinione b. Hemihypacusis parkinson prodromal c. Contralateral hemiaesthesia d. Ipsilateral hemiparesis LED Mark correct statement about parkinsonian tremor a. it affects not only the limbs but also the head 2 extremely rare, more likely ET or dystonic b. it absents c. it worsens during movement of a tremulous body part Be d. 1 contralatering it is usually symmetric, affecting both right and left side of a body equally Mark incorrect a. wearing-off means the loss of treatment effect shortly before the next tablet is taken terminal Y b. there is very narrow therapeutic window in advanced stage of the disease 90% sure correct c. very good therapeutic effect is observed in early stage of the disease 90% sure correct d. dyskinesia is present in under-dosed patients complex association bound to LT side effects a. Egert Resting b. Kinetic c. d. Intentional Postural r  case gSPag BStyEmaDNenodeg Mark correct statement about rigidity a. it worsens by the movement of contralateral limb p. 195 IX b. catch is present during passive movement of the limb c. it depends on velocity of passive movement of the limb o d. it improves by the movement of contralateral limb Mark correct statement about spasticity a. b. increased by the movement of a contralateral limb sIfomeg.as c. ascension.IT Botulinum toxin is used in the treatment of spasticity d. It is not present in patients after the stroke it is Which statement is true for Essential tremor? a. b. It is associated with action (postural and kinetic) tremor Patients usually have concomitant parkinsonism v0 Asian'EÉÉÉ ÉÉ Itar c. Patients usually have concomitant ataxia sort d. It is associated with resting tremor a. It has a good therapeutic response to alcohol not therapeutic but it works for one hour b. Many patients have positive family history of tremor autosomal dominant 50% o c. Resting tremor is the most important clinical feature d. Tremor is the only clinical manifestation of the disease Which statement about meningeal syndrome is correct? O caneeryÉ a. The presence of meningeal symptoms may not always indicate meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage u b. Nuchal rigidity/neck stiffness is a part of the clinical picture 8 c. Signs of meningism include the presence of positive d. Meningeal syndrome is always accompanied by fever Fame 157.Kernig's sign is one of the physically demonstrable symptoms of meningitis. Severe stiffness of the hamstrings causes an inability to 3Headache straighten the leg when the hip is flexed to 90 degrees. Myoclonus may originate a. Only from spinal cord b. Only from basal ganglia c. Only from the cortex d. Can be cortical, subcortical or spinal a Which of the following hyperkinetic movements is characterized as a complex patterned movement/posture? a. Myoclonus b. Tremor c. Chorea unpredictable / no pattern d. Dystonia Genetic origin of movement disorders should be considered especially if a. Symptoms start in early childhood, adolescence or early adulthood b. Symptoms start in late adulthood c. Family history is negative d. Symptoms started immediately after initiation of a new medication Uncinate crisis is present in lesion of Jobe É p a. n.I b. c. frontal lobe n. VIII. crudiguanahototing d. temporal lobe Mark the correct statement: vestibular nerve and cochlear nerve (n.VIII) a. they emerge from the pyramid bone through the meatus acusticus internus and enter the cortex in the area of the medulla oblongata b. they emerge from the pyramid bone through the meatus acusticus internus and enter the trunk in the mesencephallon (brainstem) t c. they emerge from the pyramid bone through the meatus acusticus externus at the ponto- cerebellar angle d. cerebellar angle between Pons MO I they emerge through the meatus acusticus internus and enter the brainstem in the ponto- Mark correct statement : vestibular nerve and cochlear nerve (VII) a. both nerves came out of the pyramid bone through the meatus acusticus internus and they enter the brain stem on the midbrain level b. both nerves came out of the pyramid bone through the meatus acusticus externus and they enter the brain stem in the ponto-celebellar angle c. both nerves came out of the pyramid bone through the meatus acusticus internus and they enter the brain stem on the midbrain level O I d. Both nerves came out of the pyramid bone through the meatus acusticus internus and they enter spontabllar the brain stem on the medulla oblongata level Vestibular ataxia: when testing a patient's posture (Rhomberg) test: a. stand Icloseeyes closing the eyes does not worsen the ataxia, therefore the Romberg test is positive b. the ataxia worsens when the eyes are closed, the Romberg test is positive Éing c. closing the eyes does not change the ataxia, Romberg's test is still negative d. the ataxia worsens when the eyes are closed, the Romberg test is negative e. f. deviation g. h. Ataxia is worsens when c 5 movela Uttenberg stand Nystagmus is defined as a. jerks rapidly repetitive, rhythmic movement kinghuntary of the eyes, or twitch of the eyeballs which occurs in lesions of the vestibular nerve or vestibular pathways b. rhythmic twitch of mimic muscles ipsilaterally on half of the face c. rapidly repetitive, regular, rhythmic movement of the eyes and muscles around the mouth L Cnn d. an inability to look up and is associated with diplopia Nystagmus is defined as a. rhythmic jerky movement of the mimic muscles visible on one half of the face b. fast, repetitive and rhythmical jerky movements of the eyes and at the same time the jaws c. fast, repetitive and rhythmical movements of the eyes or jerky movements of the eye bulb caused by vestibular nerve lesion or vestibular pathway lesion canbegenetic  accessory XI.cranial nerve innervates a. sternocleidomastoideus, m. trapezius) b. Does not innvervate any muscles agrimiomoscle agg'd RIGGS c. i d. M. masseter Nuclear and/or infranuclear lesion of the cranial nerves IX.,X.,XII. manifests as a. Bulbar paralysis b. Pseudobulbar paralysis supranuclear c. Do not manifest at all d. Aphasia Structural abnormality in case of bulbar palsy is localised or Structural abnormality in the case of bulbar aloha palsy is localized or Structural abnormality in the case of bulbar palsy is localised: a. The right brain hemisphere b. Bilateral damage of the hemispheres ng c. Cranial nerves IX XII ncc. Localised in the bulbar brain stem d. White matter of the hemispheres Typical features of the bulbar palsy are a. Dysartia, dysphagia, increased masseter reflex forpseudokbar b. Dysartia, dysphagia, tongue atrophy and faciculations f c. Dysartia, alebo dysphasia/ aphasia, increased corneal reflex d. Aphasia, positive pathological axial reflexes (BULBAR- LMNS PSEUDOBULBAR- UMNS) Tetraparesis/tetraplegia means the weakness of a. all four limbs b. lower limbs c. right/left limbs d. upper limbs Central palsy is characterized by a. Areflexia hyperreflexia & clonus b. c. a fibrillations verified by needle EMG bradykinesia left over no indication though d. Central palsy is characterized by a. hyporeflexia b. Babinski sign is present r c. d. atrophies e. fasciculations in the peripheral one Central palsy is characterized by a. b. Babinski sign is present c. fasciculations d. hyporeflexia  F In case of superior alternating hemiplegia a lesion of which cranial nerve is present a. VI. cranial nerve b. IV. cranial nerve c. III. cranial nerve d. II. cranial nerve Middle alternating hemiplegia is characterized by Dralhemipan KPerip cranial.n a. Contralateral central n. VII lesion and contralateral hemiparesis b. c. Ipsilateral central n. VII lesion and contralateral hemiparesis Ipsilateral peripheral n.VII lesion and contralateral hemiparesis pay d. Ipsilateral peripheral n. VII lesion and ipsilateral hemiparesis Middle alternating hemiplegia consists of or Middle alternating hemiplegia consist of or Middle alternating hemiplegia manifests with: a. Contralateral peripheral lesion of n. VII b. Ipsilateral peripheral lesion of n. VII c. Ipsilateral central lesion of n. VII d. Contralateral central lesion of n. VII Millard-Gubler syndrome is also called a. Middle alternating hemiplegia ÉÉÉE b. Superior alternating hemiplegia c. Inferior alternating hemiplegia d. There is no such syndrome Mark correct answers a. Subarcoid CSF is resorbed through the choroid plexus Via villi arachnoidales in superior sagital sinus area Edge restaurant (arachnoid granulationes) into the venous sinuses I b. c. hydrocephalus leads to enlargement of epidural space clinical presentation of hydrocephalus is contralateral hemiparesis I d. obstruction of CSF circulation can lead to hydrocephalus What diagnoses are not causes of intracranial hypertension syndrome ? a. intracerebral ha