Final Exam Study Guide PDF

FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE For Students 1) Which of the following is the best explanation of how a stimulus's strength is transmitted to the central nervous system from sensory nerves? A) Action potential frequency is increased as stimulus strength increases. B) An action potential will increase in strength as stimulus strength increases. C) More than one type of receptor will respond to larger stimulus. D) Action potentials as well as graded potentials are sent to the central nervous system when stimulus strength increases. 2) A patient is suffering from the inability to distinguish various types of odors. This patient may have damage to which of the following? A) hypoglossal nerve (XII) B) vagus nerve (X) C) facial nerve (VIII) D) olfactory nerve (I) 3) A patient has lost the ability to taste food. Which nerve may have been damaged? A) the optic nerves B) the facial nerves C) the abducens nerves D) trigeminal nerves 4) An emergency medical technician is examining a trauma victim by shining a pen light into her patient's eye. She records the reactivity of the patient's pupils as they constrict when stimulated by the light. This test supports which of the following? A) The patient has suffered brain damage. B) The patient has function of the oculomotor nerve (III). C) The patient has lost function of the optic nerve (II). D) The patient has function of the trochlear nerve (IV). 5) A bit of dust blows into and touches the cornea of the eye. Which of the following is likely to happen? A) Nothing, because there is no sensory information sent from the cornea. B) Stimulation of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (V) will cause blinking. C) Stimulation of the optic nerve (II) will cause tears to flow from the lacrimal gland. D) Stimulation of the facial nerve (VII) will be perceived as pain. 6) A doctor asks her patient to follow the motion of her finger as she moves it up and down, left and right. Which of the following cranial nerves is NOT being tested? A) the abducens (VI) B) the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) C) the oculomotor nerve (III) D) the trochlear nerve (IV) 7) As a cook chops red onions he begins to tear up due to activation of the lacrimal gland. Which of the following nerves provided the stimulus? A) the olfactory nerve (I) B) the facial nerve (VII) C) the vagus nerve (X) D) the optic nerve (II) 8) Dermatome maps are useful to clinicians because ________. A) they can help pinpoint the location of spinal injury B) they show doctors how to avoid striking spinal nerves during surgery C) they show the routes of motor nerves D) they outline the location of the numerous nerve plexus 9) A patient has an injury of the spine and is now suffering from a loss of motor function in his right arm. However, he still has normal sensory function in the arm. Based on this information it is likely that the patient has nervous tissue damage located at ________. A) spinal nerves of the cervical vertebra B) the dorsal root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra C) the ventral root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra D) the dorsal rootlets located at one of the thoracic vertebra 10) Injury to cervical vertebrae C3-C4 is particularly problematic because ________. A) part of the brain stem is located here B) several ganglia are near this region that serve the heart C) the phrenic nerve that serves the diaphragm receives its fibers from here D) the greater auricular nerve that serve the parotid gland receive there fibers from here 11) Complicated interlacing of the ventral rami form networks called nerve plexus. The crisscrossing of the nerve fibers from the various spinal nerves is advantageous because ________. A) viruses that infect us by moving through PNS nerves are prevented entry to the CNS B) having several nerve fibers unite enhances motor function C) having several nerve fibers unite enhances sensory function D) injury to any single spinal nerve will be less damaging as there is less chance of total loss of innervation to any particular organ 12) Bill is a mechanic that works with vibrating tools. He also exerts force on his wrists when twisting wrenches and screws. Bill has a tingling sensation in the lateral portion of his hand. The doctor suspects carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following tests might the doctor try on her patient? A) Have Bill flex and extend his arm against resistance. B) Check for reflex on the medial condyle of the humerus with a rubber mallet. C) Have Bill grip an object with his thumb and index finger and try to pull the object away. D) Check for hyperextension at the knuckles of the little and ring finger. 13) Which of the following nerves does NOT arise from the brachial plexus? A) median B) phrenic C) radial D) ulnar 14) The posterior side of the thigh, leg, and foot is served by the ________ nerve. A) obturator B) common fibular C) tibial D) femoral 15) Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are (in order) ________. A) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords B) roots, divisions, cords, and trunks C) divisions, roots, trunks, and cords D) trunks, divisions, cords, and roots 16) The cranial nerve that emerges from the pons and serves the motor and proprioceptive functions of the eyeball is the ________. A) hypoglossal B) abducens C) vagus D) glossopharyngeal 17) Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the occurrence of a sensation? A) The stimulus energy must match the specificity of the receptor. B) The stimulus energy must occur within the receptor's receptive field. C) The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential called a transduction potential. D) A generator potential in the associated sensory neuron must reach threshold. 18) A major nerve of the lumbar plexus is the ________. A) femoral B) iliohypogastric C) sciatic D) ilioinguinal 19) Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the ________. A) lumbar plexus B) femoral plexus C) sacral plexus D) thoracic plexus 20) Inborn or intrinsic reflexes are ________. A) rapid, predictable, and can be learned responses B) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior C) autonomic only D) always mediated by the brain 21) Striking the "funny bone" is actually stimulation of (or injury to) the ________. A) radial nerve B) sciatic nerve C) ulnar nerve D) median nerve 22) A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a ________. A) tendon reflex B) flexor reflex C) crossed-extensor reflex D) plantar reflex 23) Which receptors respond to stimuli within the body? A) exteroceptors B) proprioceptors C) interoceptors D) photoreceptors 24) Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________. A) afferent nerves B) efferent nerves C) motor nerves D) mixed nerves 25) After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________. A) Wallerian cells B) Schwann cells C) dendrites D) Golgi organs 26) Regeneration within the CNS ________. A) is more successful than with the PNS B) typically allows axonal sprouting of 20 mm C) is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes D) is promoted by growth inhibitors and glial scars 27) Fibers that enter and leave the sympathetic trunks without synapsing form structures called ________. A) white rami communicantes B) gray rami communicantes C) spinal nerves D) splanchnic nerves 28) Which of the following is NOT a plexus of the vagus (X) nerve? A) cardiac B) pulmonary C) inferior hypogastric D) esophageal 29) Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________. A) visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons B) somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not possess C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons D) visceral arcs do not use integration centers 30) The parasympathetic tone ________. A) prevents unnecessary heart deceleration B) accelerates activity of the digestive tract C) determines normal activity of the urinary tract D) causes blood pressure to rise 31) Once a sympathetic preganglionic axon reaches a trunk ganglion, it can do all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion B) synapse with a ganglionic neuron in the same trunk ganglion C) ascend or descend the trunk to synapse in another trunk ganglion D) pass through the trunk ganglion without synapsing with another neuron 32) Which of the following appears to exert the most direct influence over autonomic functions? A) hypothalamus B) midbrain C) reticular formation D) medulla oblongata 33) Drugs called beta-blockers ________. A) increase a dangerously low heart rate B) decrease heart rate and blood pressure C) have widespread sympathetic effects D) are potent antidepressants 34) Erection (vasodilation) of the penis or clitoris ________. A) is primarily under sympathetic control B) is primarily under parasympathetic control C) is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input D) depends very little on autonomic activation 35) Which is an exclusively sympathetic function? A) regulation of pupil size B) regulation of cardiac rate C) regulation of respiratory rate D) regulation of body temperature 36) Raynaud's disease ________. A) is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities B) is induced by heat stress C) occurs primarily in association with injury to the spinal cord D) is frequently life threatening 37) Which of the following is NOT true about hypertension? A) It is also known as high blood pressure. B) It may result from an overactive sympathetic vasoconstrictor response. C) It is serious because it forces the heart to work harder and increases wear and tear on artery walls. D) It is a disorder of the parasympathetic division of the ANS. 38) Which sympathetic fibers form a splanchnic nerve? A) those that synapse with parasympathetic fibers B) those that synapse in the same trunk ganglion they entered C) those that synapse with somatic fibers D) those that pass through the trunk ganglion to synapse in collateral or prevertebral ganglia 39) Which of the following adrenergic neurotransmitter receptors plays the major role in heart activity? A) beta 1 B) beta 2 C) beta 3 D) alpha 1 40) Where would you NOT find autonomic ganglia? A) unpaired, anterior to spinal cord B) paired, beside spinal cord C) within wall of organ served or close to organ D) within spinal cord 41) Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________. A) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure B) increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure C) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure D) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure 42) The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the ________. A) lumbar splanchnic nerves B) cephalic plexus C) pelvic nerves D) vagus (X) nerves 43) The route of major parasympathetic outflow from the head is via the ________. A) sympathetic trunk B) phrenic nerve C) vagus (X) nerves D) sacral nerves 44) Parasympathetic functions include ________. A) a stimulation of heart rate and force of contraction B) allowing the body to cope with an external threat C) lens accommodation for close vision D) raising blood glucose levels 45) Emotions influence autonomic reactions primarily through integration in the ________. A) lateral horn of the spinal cord B) hypothalamus C) lateral geniculate of the thalamus D) inferior colliculus 46) The mushroom poison muscarine can bind to receptors on ________. A) all effector cells stimulated by postganglionic cholinergic fibers B) the hormone producing cells of the adrenal medulla C) cell bodies and dendrites of parasympathetic postganglionic neurons D) cell bodies and dendrites of sympathetic postganglionic neurons 47) Which of the following drug classes would be useful for smoking cessation products? A) nicotinic agents B) parasympathomimetic agents (muscarinic agents) C) acetylcholinesterase inhibitors D) sympathomimetic agents 48) A mugger steals your wallet causing all of the following to happen EXCEPT ________. A) increased rate and force of heartbeat B) inability to read close-up print C) increased glucose uptake to the liver from blood D) increased metabolic rate 49) Which of the following is mismatched? A) gallbladder contracts to expel bile; parasympathetic B) bronchiole dilation in lungs; sympathetic C) penis ejaculation; sympathetic D) promotes urination; sympathetic 50) Which type of drug would be useful in dilating the pupils for an examination of the retina? A) beta-3 receptor mimic B) muscarinic receptor inhibitor C) alpha-1 receptor inhibitor D) beta-1 receptor mimic 51) Which target organ receives dual innervation? A) kidney B) sweat glands C) small intestine D) coronary blood vessels 52) Which of the following is mismatched? A) sympathetic preganglionic fibers; release ACh B) parasympathetic preganglionic fibers; release ACh C) sympathetic postganglionic fibers; release NE D) parasympathetic postganglionic fibers; release NE 53) Which of the following is the best explanation of why it is difficult to discriminate the color of an object at night? A) At night, dilation of pupils stimulates the retina, where more rods are located rather than cones. B) Cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light. C) The foveae are densely packed with cones. D) As many as 100 cones may converge on one ganglion cell. 54) Which of the following best describes the function of the iris? A) controls amount of light entering eye B) gives the eye its color C) refracts light through the pupil D) adjusts the shape of the lens 55) Which of the following is the best explanation for our perception of color? A) Rods contain a single kind of visual pigment. B) Cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light. C) The foveae are densely packed with cones. D) As many as 100 cones may converge on one ganglion cell. 56) The elasticity of the lens decreases with age. This leads to which of the following? A) a clouding of the lenses known as a cataract B) less accommodation of the lenses and difficulty focusing on nearby objects C) less light getting to the retina and diminished visual acuity D) lowered accommodation of the pupillary reflex and blurry vision 57) Paralysis of which eye muscle would prevent the right eye from looking to the left? A) Lateral rectus B) Superior rectus C) Medial rectus D) Inferior rectus 58) Overlap in the visual fields of our eyes ________. A) allows us to subconsciously estimate the distance of objects based on the different angles the image strikes our two retinas B) gives us higher visual acuity for small detail by doubling the number of photoreceptors that are being stimulated C) is essentially a waste of brain processing for what is essentially the same image D) leaves a blind spot anterior to the nose and in the lateral fields of vision 59) If you shine a light into one eye both pupils will constrict. The best explanation for this is ________. A) sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain B) a small portion of light always enters the other eye C) information from one eye is directly and immediately transferred to the other eye to maintain alignment of the eyes D) This, in fact, does not occur; information from both eyes is always separated. 60) Select the statement below that is NOT true with regards to the process of light adaptation. A) The activity of rods is reduced by rapid bleaching of rhodopsin. B) Visual acuity is diminished. C) Rhodopsin is uncoupled from light transduction. D) Retinal sensitivity decreases. 61) Humans can see several thousand shades of color but have cone photoreceptors that are sensitive to only three (perhaps four) wavelengths of light. What is the best explanation for why we see so many colors? A) Color perception is dependent on the millions of rods as well as cone photoreceptors. B) Color perception is achieved by activation of various combinations between the three cone types. C) Colors are added and enhanced in the primary visual cortex of the brain. D) Shades of color are purely psychological and learned by association with age, infants only seeing in black and white. 62) Color vision has much greater resolution than night vision (vision that is mostly in shades of gray). Which of the following is the best explanation for why this is so? A) A single cone photoreceptor often connects to a single bipolar cell and a single ganglion cell while as many as 100 rods will converge to a single ganglion cell. B) A larger proportion of the brain's visual cortex is active during the day when our cone photoreceptors are most active. C) There are many more cone photoreceptors in the eye than rod photoreceptors. D) There are several types of cone photoreceptors, each of which enrich the clarity and resolution of vision. 63) Humans can smell as many as 10,000 different odors but have significantly fewer types of olfactory receptors. Which of the following is the best explanation for why humans can distinguish so many smells? A) Taste receptors that are active at the same time influence the subtlety of what we smell. B) The olfactory pathway travels to location in the brain in which memories are formed and we simply mix this new sensory information with old memories. C) The sensation of a single, distinct smell is a combination of a variety of chemicals that stimulate different combinations of olfactory receptor cells all at once. D) The belief that we can smell so many different distinct odors is a psychological process referred to as an uncinate fit or olfactory hallucination. 64) As light travels through the eye, it passes through several structures or chambers before reaching the retina. Which list below gives those structures in the correct order? A) cornea, lens, pupil, anterior chamber, posterior segment B) cornea, pupil, anterior chamber, lens, posterior segment C) cornea, pupil, lens, anterior chamber, posterior segment D) cornea, anterior chamber, pupil, lens, posterior segment 65) Labyrinthitis is a medical condition often caused by a viral infection, resulting in swelling and inflammation of the membranous labyrinth. Which of the following symptoms would you most associate with the condition of labyrinthitis? A) auditory hallucination B) loss of balance and dizziness C) loss of hearing D) ringing in the ears (tinnitus) 66) The sensation of loudness or the volume of a sound is detected by ________. A) greater movement of the basilar membrane resulting in greater deflection of the hair cells B) vibration along a greater length of the basilar membrane, stimulating a greater number of hair cells C) faster vibration of the basilar membrane resulting in a higher frequency of hair cell stimulation D) sounds that can travel all the way to the apex of the scala vestibule with enough energy remaining to deflect hair cells 67) A patient has a loss of hearing in only one ear. Which of the following is likely to be a result? A) The patient will have a loss of balance with dizziness and vertigo. B) The patient will have increased sensitivity to sound in the unaffected ear. C) The patient will not be able to track objects with the eye on the same side as the hearing loss. D) The patient will not be able to localize the origin of sounds. 68) Dancers will use a technique called "spotting" when they perform spins of the body. By holding their head and eyes on a fixed point in front of them as their body spins they reduce the amount of head spinning and this prevents dizziness. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for why this works? A) When the eyes send a static vision of stability to the brain, it is tricked into believing the body is still and therefore dizziness will not occur. B) This helps keep the motions detected by the eyes congruent (aligned) with the motions sensed by the vestibular apparatus. C) This will help to reduce the lateral flection of the head and will prevent hyper polarization or depolarization of the hair cells in the macula. D) Reducing the inertia of head spin will reduce the flow of endolymph that deflects the hair cells of the crista ampullaris. 69) Tom is a 45-year-old male that has lost his ability to hear high frequency sounds. The most likely explanation for this would be ________. A) a perforated tympanic membrane B) a middle ear infection C) damage to the hair cells near the oval window in the cochlear duct D) an overgrowth of bony tissue, fusing the ossicles together 70) What is the main function of the rods in the eye? A) depth perception B) color vision C) vision in dim light D) accommodation for near vision 71) What structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye? A) aqueous humor B) lens C) cornea D) iris 72) Receptors for hearing are located in the ________. A) cochlea B) semicircular canals C) tympanic membrane D) vestibule 73) Which of the following types of neurons are replaced throughout adult life? A) olfactory receptor cells B) retinal bipolar cells C) retinal ganglion cells D) auditory outer and inner hair cells 74) Bitter taste is elicited by ________. A) hydrogen ions B) alkaloids C) acids D) metal ions 75) The receptor for static equilibrium is the ________. A) semicircular canals B) macula C) utricle D) cochlear duct 76) The ability to clearly see objects at a distance but not close up is properly called ________. A) myopia B) hypopia C) hyperopia D) presbyopia 77) Seventy percent of all sensory receptors are located in the ________. A) eye B) ears C) skin D) nose 78) Which of the following structures is NOT part of the external ear? A) pinna B) external acoustic meatus C) tympanic membrane D) pharyngotympanic tube 79) Enterochromaffin-like cells of the gastric mucosa can be triggered to release histamine. Histamine, in this case, causes nearby parietal cells of the stomach lining to produce hydrochloric acid. The effect of histamine on parietal cells would best be described as a(n) ________. A) second messenger B) autocrine C) exocrine D) paracrine 80) Which of the following is NOT a change typically produced by a hormonal stimulus? A) activates or deactivates enzymes B) stimulates production of an action potential C) alters plasma membrane permeability D) induces secretory activity 81) Which of the following hormones suppresses appetite and increases energy expenditure? A) gastrin B) secretin C) leptin D) aldosterone 82) Which of the following is NOT a change that may be caused by hormonal stimulus? A) a change in membrane potential B) stimulation of mitosis C) an increase in enzyme synthesis D) direct control of the nervous system 83) The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on ________. A) the location of the tissue or organ with respect to the circulatory path B) the membrane potential of the cells of the target organ C) the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ D) nothing—all hormones of the human body are able to stimulate any and all cell types because hormones are powerful and nonspecific 84) Several hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior pituitary gland. The mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary gland is through the ________. A) hepatic portal system B) general circulatory system C) hypophyseal portal system D) feedback loop 85) The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is NOT a true endocrine gland because ________. A) it is strictly a part of the neural system and has little or nothing to do with hormonal release B) embryonically it was an endocrine tissue, but in the adult human it is no longer functional C) it is unable to function as an endocrine tissue because it is actually part of the neural system due to its location D) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release 86) Steroid hormones exert their action by ________. A) entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene B) binding cell receptors and initiating cAMP activity C) entering the cell and activating mitochondrial DNA D) activating the hypothalamic release of regulating hormones 87) The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by ________. A) synthesizing more than one hormone at a time B) increasing the basal metabolic rate in the target organ C) altering gene expression in the nuclear DNA D) binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP 88) Hormones often cause a cell to elicit multiple responses; this is because ________. A) there are thousands of receptors on the cell membrane B) the receptors bind to several hormones at the same time C) the protein kinases are rapidly metabolized into functional amino acids D) during protein kinase activation, enzymes phosphorylate many other enzymes 89) Which of the following statements is true of amino acid-based hormones? A) They cross the plasma membrane. B) They are lipid soluble. C) They are synthesized from cholesterol. D) They require a receptor in the plasma membrane. 90) Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a manner similar to ________. A) insulin, because insulin is a small peptide B) steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells C) growth hormone, because the thyroid works synergistically with thyroid hormone D) glucagon, because the structure of glucagon is similar to that of thyroid hormone 91) Which anterior pituitary hormone does NOT target another endocrine gland? A) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) B) growth hormone (GH) C) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) D) luteinizing hormone (LH) 92) One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. Which of the following describes this mechanism? A) neural stimulation B) catabolic inhibition C) protein synthesis D) humoral stimulation 93) The major targets of growth hormone are ________. A) the blood vessels B) the thyroid and adrenal glands C) the liver and gall bladder D) liver, bones, and skeletal muscles 94) Which of the following is NOT a parathyroid gland mechanism to maintain adequate levels of blood calcium? A) activation of osteoclasts B) increased calcium ion reabsorption by the kidneys C) increased intestinal absorption of calcium ions D) inhibition of calcitonin synthesis 95) Which organ is responsible for synthesizing the hormone atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)? A) the heart B) the kidney C) the skin D) the spleen 96) Mineralocorticoid is to aldosterone as glucocorticoid is to ________. A) testosterone B) estrogen C) cortisol D) epinephrine 97) Leptin is secreted by ________. A) lymphocytes B) adipose cells C) goblet cells D) fibroblasts 98) Which of the following is NOT a component of the cyclic AMP signaling mechanism? A) hormone receptor B) effector enzyme C) steroid D) G protein 99) Which of the following is NOT a steroid-based hormone? A) estrogen B) aldosterone C) epinephrine D) cortisol 100) The single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood is ________. A) calcitonin B) parathyroid hormone C) thyroid hormone D) gonadotropic hormones 101) Hormones that bind to plasma proteins ________. A) are usually water soluble B) must also bind to plasma membrane receptors C) are usually made of amino acids D) are usually synthesized from cholesterol 102) Regulating hormones from the hypothalamus ________. A) enter venous circulation and travel to the heart, which pumps the hormone-containing blood to the pituitary B) enter the hepatic portal system, which feeds the pituitary C) travel by arteries to the pituitary D) first enter into the hypophyseal portal system 103) The effect of a hormone on a target cell may be decreased by the presence of ________. A) antagonistic hormones B) permissive hormones C) synergistic hormones D) plasma membrane receptors 104) Aldosterone ________. A) is secreted by the posterior pituitary B) functions to increase sodium reabsorption C) presence increases potassium concentration in the blood D) production is greatly influenced by ACTH 105) Which of the following would you expect to have the least effect on hematocrit percentage? A) living at higher altitude B) injection with erythropoietin (EPO) C) prolonged or excessive fever D) dehydration 106) People that have a single allele (gene copy) for sickle cell anemia are typically not sick from the disease and are said to be carriers of sickle cell trait. These people will more often live in the malaria belt of sub-Saharan Africa. The most likely explanation for this is ________. A) malaria is a cause of sickle cell trait B) the tropical climate attracts people with sickle cell trait C) people with sickle cell trait have a better chance of surviving malaria D) sickle cell trait is passed on to the biting mosquitoes as malaria 107) Lipids (either nutrients or hormones) are insoluble in water but are found traveling in the plasma of the blood. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this? A) enzymes in the plasma convert lipids to soluble forms B) lipids are carried in plasma bound to soluble plasma transport proteins C) lipids are carried only in the lymph which is primarily composed of unsaturated fats D) lipids are carried inside blood cells 108) A mismatch of blood types during a transfusion is dangerous because ________. A) antibodies in the donor's plasma will attack and kill the recipient's healthy blood cells B) clotting factors in the donor's blood will cause unwanted clots known as thrombus C) preformed antibodies in the recipient's blood will bind and clump (agglutinate) the donated cells D) white blood cells from the donor's blood cause inflammation 109) If you centrifuge (spin) whole blood, you will find the red blood cells (erythrocytes) at the bottom of the tube and white blood cells atop them. This implies that ________. A) red blood cells are larger than white blood cells B) white blood cells are smaller than red blood cells C) red blood cells have a greater density than white blood cells D) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells 110) If you centrifuge (spin) whole blood you will find the band of white blood cells and platelets (the buffy coat) is much thinner than the packed red blood cells below it. This difference reflects the fact that ________. A) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells B) white blood cells are smaller than red blood cells C) platelets are larger than white blood cells D) platelets are larger than red blood cells 111) Which two factors below make rapid and substantial blood loss life threatening? A) loss of immunity and loss of carbon dioxide carrying capacity B) loss of clotting ability and loss of osmotic pressure C) loss of blood pressure and loss of oxygen carrying capacity D) loss of immunity and loss of blood pressure 112) If a person is severely dehydrated you would expect to see all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) lower plasma levels B) higher hematocrit C) higher blood viscosity D) lower immunity 113) Which of the following is NOT a functional characteristic of WBCs? A) granulosis B) diapedesis C) ameboid motion D) positive chemotaxis 114) What is the average normal pH range of blood? A) 8.35-8.45 B) 7.75-7.85 C) 7.35-7.45 D) 4.65-4.75 115) The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is ________. A) hemoglobin A B) hemoglobin B C) hemoglobin F D) hemoglobin S 116) Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood? A) megakaryocyte B) normoblast C) hemocytoblast D) polymorphonuclear cell 117) Which blood type is generally called the universal donor? A) A positive B) B negative C) AB positive D) O negative 118) If a patient with type B blood received a transfusion of AB blood, which of the following would occur? A) The patient's A antigens (antiglutinogens) will agglutinate with the anti-A antibodies (agglutinins) in the donor blood. B) The patient's anti-A antibodies (agglutinins) will agglutinate with the A antigens (antiglutinogens) in the donor blood. C) The patient's B antigens (antiglutinogens) will agglutinate with the anti-B antibodies (agglutinins) in the donor blood. D) The patient's anti-B antibodies (agglutinins) will agglutinate with the B antigens (agglutinins) in the donor blood. 119) Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis? A) hypoxia of EPO-producing cells B) decreased tissue demand for oxygen C) an increased number of RBCs D) moving to a lower altitude 120) Blood reticulocyte counts provide information regarding ________. A) rate of erythrocyte formation B) rate of platelet formation C) clotting ability of the blood D) WBC ability to defend the body against disease 121) A patient with type A positive blood can, in theory, safely donate blood to someone with ________ blood. A) A positive, A negative, O positive, or O negative B) A positive or O positive C) A positive or AB positive D) A positive, A negative, AB positive, or AB negative 122) When neither anti-A serum nor anti-B serum clot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type ________. A) A B) B C) AB D) O 123) All of the following can be expected with polycythemia EXCEPT ________. A) high hematocrit B) low blood viscosity C) increased blood volume D) high blood pressure 124) Which is NOT true of leukocytes? A) They are the only formed elements that are true cells. B) They move by amoeboid motion. C) They all contain easily recognizable membrane-bound cytoplasmic granules. D) They account for less than 1% of total blood volume. 125) Replacing lost blood volume with an isotonic saline solution ________. A) restores the oxygen-carrying capacity of the circulation B) restores the patient's blood glucose levels C) lowers the patient's blood volume D) lowers the patient's hematocrit 126) Blood doping refers to the practice of ________ before an athletic event. A) training at high altitude to increase red blood cell production B) injecting performance-enhancing steroids into the blood C) removing, storing, and re-injecting a person's red blood cells D) injecting high amounts of oxygen into the blood stream 127) A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and causing an appearance of large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of ________. A) aplastic anemia B) polycythemia C) pernicious anemia D) sickle-cell anemia 128) Which is NOT true of thrombocytopenia? A) It may produce petechiae. B) It is caused by having a low number of circulating platelets. C) It can be caused by conditions that destroy bone marrow. D) It increases the risk of embolus formation. 129) Leukocytes displaying red cytoplasmic granules when treated with Wright's stain are most likely ________. A) basophils B) eosinophils C) monocytes D) erythrocytes 130) Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean? A) There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma. B) Antibodies to A and B are present in the red cells. C) His blood lacks Rh factor. D) He can only receive blood from a donor who is AB positive. 131) If cardiac muscle is deprived of its normal blood supply, damage would primarily result from ________. A) decreased delivery of oxygen B) a decrease in the number of available mitochondria for energy production C) a lack of nutrients to feed into metabolic pathways D) an inadequate supply of lactic acid 132) If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells, ________. A) it would be much longer before cardiac cells could respond to a second stimulation B) contractions would last as long as the refractory period C) tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action D) pacemaker cells would cease to spontaneously depolarize 133) Norepinephrine acts on the heart by ________. A) decreasing heart contractility B) causing a decrease in stroke volume C) blocking the action of calcium D) causing threshold to be reached more quickly 134) If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that ________. A) the heart would stop, since the vagal nerves trigger the heart to contract B) the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute C) the atrioventricular (AV) node would become the pacemaker of the heart D) parasympathetic stimulation would increase, causing a decrease in heart rate 135) The foramen ovale ________. A) connected the two atria in the fetal heart B) is a condition in which the heart valves do not completely close C) is a shallow depression in the interventricular septum D) is a connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta in the fetus 136) Which vessel(s) of the heart receive(s) blood from the right ventricle? A) venae cavae B) pulmonary trunk C) aorta D) pulmonary veins 137) Which of the following receive(s) blood during ventricular systole? A) aorta only B) pulmonary arteries only C) pulmonary veins only D) both the aorta and pulmonary trunk 138) Which of the following is NOT part of the intrinsic conduction system of the heart? A) atrioventricular (AV) node B) bundle branches C) atrioventricular (AV) valve D) sinoatrial (SA) node 139) The atrioventricular (AV) valves are closed ________. A) when the ventricles are in diastole B) when the ventricles are in systole C) while the atria are contracting D) by the movement of blood from atria to ventricles 140) Pectinate muscles are found in the ________. A) atria only B) atria and ventricles C) ventricles only D) right atrium and right ventricle only 141) Select the correct statement about the heart valves. A) The mitral (bicuspid) valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle. B) The tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle. C) Aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves control the flow of blood into the heart. D) The atrioventricular (AV) valves prevent backflow of blood added into the atria during ventricular contraction. 142) Select the correct statement about the function of myocardial cells. A) The entire heart contracts as a unit or it does not contract at all. B) Cardiac muscle cells are innervated by sympathetic, parasympathetic, and somatic nerve fibers so that the nervous system can increase heart rate. C) The refractory period in skeletal muscle is much longer than that in cardiac muscle. D) The influx of potassium ions from extracellular sources is the initiating event in cardiac muscle contraction. 143) Select the correct statement about the structure of the heart wall. A) The fibrous cardiac skeleton forms the bulk of the heart. B) Connective tissue in the heart wall aids in the conduction of the action potential. C) The heart chambers are lined by the endomysium. D) The myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contracts. 144) Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle ________. A) has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium B) lacks striations C) has more nuclei per cell D) cells are larger than skeletal muscle cells 145) During the period of ventricular filling, ________. A) pressure in the heart is at its peak B) blood flows mostly passively from the atria through the atrioventricular (AV) valves into the ventricles C) the atria remain in diastole D) the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves are open 146) The second heart sound is heard during which phase of the cardiac cycle? A) isovolumetric relaxation B) isovolumetric contraction C) ventricular ejection D) ventricular filling 147) Which is most responsible for the synchronized contraction of cardiac muscle tissue? A) desmosomes B) small motor units C) gap junctions D) branching cells 148) Select the correct statement about cardiac output. A) A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction. B) Decreased venous return will result in increased end diastolic volume. C) If a semilunar valve were partially obstructed, the end systolic volume in the affected ventricle would be decreased. D) Stroke volume increases if end diastolic volume decreases. 149) Which is NOT a vessel that brings blood directly into the right atrium? A) superior vena cava B) inferior vena cava C) pulmonary vein D) coronary sinus 150) Isovolumetric contraction ________. A) refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers B) occurs while the atrioventricular (AV) valves are open C) occurs immediately after the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves close D) occurs only in people with heart valve defects 151) Given an end diastolic volume (EDV) of 120 ml / beat and an end systolic volume (ESV) of 50 ml / beat, the stroke volume (SV) would be ________. A) 120 ml / beat B) 170 ml / beat C) 70 ml / beat D) 50 ml / beat 152) If the mitral valve is unable to close properly, ________. A) blood could flow back into the left atrium B) blood could flow back into the left ventricle C) blood could flow back into the right atrium D) blood could flow back into the right ventricle 153) During exercise, which of the following would occur on an electrocardiogram (ECG) compared to an individual at rest? A) the T wave would decrease B) the P-R interval would decrease C) the time from one R to the R of the next heartbeat would decrease D) the S-T segment would decrease 154) Which coronary artery is most responsible for supplying blood to the myocardial tissue of the left atrium? A) anterior interventricular artery B) circumflex artery C) right marginal artery D) posterior interventricular artery 155) What is the expected heart rate when a heart is removed from a living body? A) the heart would immediately stop beating B) 50 beats / minute C) 75 beats / minute D) 100 beats / minute 156) While auscultating heart sounds during a checkup, Andy's doctor hears a high-pitched sound during ventricular contraction. Which type of valve could cause this? A) insufficient mitral (bicuspid) valve B) stenotic aortic semilunar valve C) incompetent tricuspid valve D) deficient pulmonary semilunar valve 157) Which structural layer of blood vessels is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure? A) subendothelial B) tunica intima C) tunica media D) tunica externa 158) Vessels that carry blood away from the heart and are named by the organs they supply (renal) are _________. A) elastic arteries B) muscular arteries C) arterioles D) capillaries 159) Which of the following would NOT be expected from taking a diuretic drug? A) lower plasma volume B) increased urine output C) decreased blood pressure D) greater stress on the heart to provide adequate perfusion 160) A person suddenly gaining significant amounts of adipose tissue can expect all of the following physiological changes except one. Which of the following is least likely to occur with a sudden and significant gain in adipose tissue? A) increased angiogenesis and higher peripheral resistance B) higher peripheral resistance and higher blood pressure C) lower heart rate and reduced blood flow D) increased risk of developing atherosclerosis 161) Which blood vessels lack elastic tissue? A) muscular arteries and arterioles B) venules and veins C) capillaries and venules D) arterioles and capillaries 162) In red bone marrow newly formed blood cells enter the circulation. You would expect to see many ________ type of capillaries in red bone marrow. A) sinusoid B) continuous C) fenestrated D) metarterioles 163) The aorta receives the full force of blood exiting the heart during ventricular systole. Which of the following statements best describes the adaptive anatomy of the aorta? A) The aorta's tunica media is thick with dense regular connective tissue to withstand the blood's pressure. B) Smooth muscle is relatively thin in the aorta to increase lumen size and systemic blood flow. C) Elastic fibers are extensive in the tunica media of the aorta and dampen the pulse pressure generated by the heart. D) The tunica external of the aorta is nearly absent compared to other vessels. 164) Which of the following statements is NOT true of the precapillary sphincters? A) They allow blood to bypass the true capillaries that are fed by the metarteriole. B) They regulate the flow of blood to tissues served by the true capillaries. C) They increase or decrease rates of perfusion to the tissues served by the true capillaries. D) They decrease the osmotic pressure in the thoroughfare channel. 165) Blood flow is ________ proportional to the difference in blood pressure. Blood flow is ________ proportional to the total peripheral resistance. A) inversely; directly B) directly; inversely C) inversely; inversely D) directly; directly 166) Atherosclerosis causes elastic arteries to become less stretchy. How does this affect pulse pressure? A) Pulse pressure is chronically increased. B) Pulse pressure is temporarily increased. C) Pulse pressure is chronically decreased. D) Pulse pressure is temporarily decreased. E) Pulse pressure is unaffected by atherosclerosis. 167) In general, it is expected that ________. A) hydrostatic pressure will rise as blood moves away from the arteriole end of the capillary bed B) hydrostatic pressure will drop as blood moves away from the arteriole end of the capillary bed C) hydrostatic pressure will remain constant throughout the capillary bed D) osmotic pressure will be lower in the arteriole end of the capillary bed compared to the venous end 168) In general, it is expected that ________. A) osmotic pressure will remain relatively consistent throughout the capillary bed B) osmotic pressure will be lower in the arteriole end of the capillary bed compared to the venous end C) osmotic pressure will be higher in the arteriole end of the capillary bed compared to the venous end D) hydrostatic pressure will remain constant throughout the capillary bed 169) Which of the following is most likely to occur in the arteriovenous shuts present in the blood vessels of the finger tips and toes? A) Colder temperatures will result in vasoconstriction in the arteriovenous shuts. B) Warmer temperatures will result in vasoconstriction in the arteriovenous shuts. C) Exercise will result in vasoconstriction in the arteriovenous shuts. D) Colder temperatures will result in vasodilation in the arteriovenous shuts. 170) Which of the following does NOT contribute to venous blood pressure? A) increased abdominal pressure during breathing B) constriction of smooth muscle around veins by the sympathetic nervous system C) venous anastomoses D) skeletal muscle activity 171) The velocity of blood is slowest in the capillaries and pressure of blood is lowest in the veins. Which of the following is NOT an accurate description of the benefits of slow, low pressure blood in the capillary beds? A) Lower pressure reduces the chance of injury to delicate capillary vessels. B) Slower blood flow through capillaries allows more time for diffusion to take place in the capillary bed. C) Lower pressure on the venous end of the capillary bed allows for greater reabsorption of fluid back to the plasma. D) Lower pressure in the capillary bed helps to increase pressure in the venous circulation. 172) The release of which hormone is most likely to cause a reduction in blood volume and pressure? A) antidiuretic hormone B) aldosterone C) norepinephrine D) atrial natriuretic peptide 173) Which will NOT occur if blood pressure drops below homeostatic levels? A) Baroreceptors in the carotid sinuses and aortic arch will be stimulated. B) The cardioacceleratory center of the medulla will be activated. C) Cardiac output will increase. D) Vasomotor center of the medulla will trigger vasoconstriction. 174) Which statement best describes arteries? A) All carry oxygenated blood to the heart. B) All carry blood away from the heart. C) All contain valves to prevent the backflow of blood. D) Only large arteries are lined with endothelium. 175) Permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of ________. A) arterioles B) arteries C) veins D) capillaries 176) Which of the following statements regarding the hepatic portal system is FALSE? A) It carries nutrients, toxins, and microorganisms to the liver for processing. B) Its major vessels are the superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric, and splenic veins. C) It consists of a vein connecting two capillary beds together. D) It branches off of the inferior vena cava. 177) Which of the following contain oxygenated blood? A) pulmonary trunk B) lobar arteries C) pulmonary veins D) pulmonary arteries 178) Each of the following describes the action of aldosterone except one. Which of the following does NOT describe the activity of aldosterone hormone? A) It promotes an increase in blood pressure. B) It promotes an increase in sodium reabsorption from the kidney to the blood. C) It will reduce urine output. D) It will result in higher sodium levels in the urine. 179) The pulse pressure is ________. A) systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure B) systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure C) systolic pressure divided by diastolic pressure D) diastolic pressure plus 1/3 (systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure) 180) Which of the following signs of hypovolemic shock is a relatively late sign? A) cold, clammy skin B) increased heart rate C) rapid, thready pulse D) rapidly falling blood pressure 181) Which of the following is likely during vigorous exercise? A) Blood will be diverted to the digestive organs. B) The skin will be cold and clammy. C) Capillaries of the active muscles will be engorged with blood. D) Blood flow to the kidneys increases. 182) Which of the choices below explains why the arterioles are known as resistance vessels? A) Their prime function is the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the blood and tissue cells. B) The contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter. C) They distribute blood to various parts of the body. D) They contain a large quantity of elastic tissue. 183) The thymus is most active during ________. A) fetal development B) childhood C) middle age D) old age 184) Lymph traveling from the left arm would enter the venous circulation via the _______. A) thoracic duct B) right lymphatic duct C) cisterna chili D) axillary nodes 185) Which of the following is NOT a part of the lymphatic system? A) lymphatic vessels B) lymph nodes C) lymph D) erythrocytes 186) The lymphatic capillaries are ________. A) more permeable than blood capillaries B) less permeable than blood capillaries C) as permeable as blood capillaries D) completely impermeable 187) Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by ________. A) T lymphocytes B) plasma cells C) lymph nodes D) medullary cords 188) Lymph leaves a lymph node via ________. A) efferent lymphatic vessels B) afferent lymphatic vessels C) the cortical sinus D) the subcapsular sinus 189) Lymph vessels do NOT transport ________. A) erythrocytes B) lymphocytes C) excess tissue fluid D) leaked plasma proteins E) dietary fats 190) Functions of the spleen include all of those below EXCEPT ________. A) removal of old or defective blood cells from the blood B) forming crypts that trap bacteria C) storage of blood platelets D) storage of iron 191) When the lymphatic structures of a limb are blocked due to tumors, the result is ________. A) shrinkage of tissues distal in the limb to the blockage due to inadequate delivery of lymph B) severe localized edema distal to the blockage of that limb C) increased pressure in the lymphatics proximal in the limb to the blockage D) abnormally high lymph drainage from the distal region 192) Select the correct statement about lymph transport. A) Under normal conditions, lymph vessels are very high-pressure conduits. B) Lymph transport is faster than that occurring in veins. C) Lymph transport is only necessary when illness causes tissue swelling. D) Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles. 193) Select the correct statement about lymphocytes. A) The two main types are T cells and macrophages. B) B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood. C) T cells are the precursors of B cells. D) T cells are the only form of lymphocyte found in lymphoid tissue. 194) Select the correct statement about lymphoid tissue. A) Once a lymphocyte enters the lymphoid tissue, it resides there permanently. B) Lymphoid macrophages secrete antibodies into the blood. C) Lymphoid tissue is predominantly reticular connective tissue. D) T lymphocytes act by ingesting foreign substances. 195) Lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity is called a(n) ________. A) tonsil B) thymus C) Peyer's patch D) appendix Answer: A 196) Which of the following structures is NOT considered mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)? A) tonsils B) Peyer's patches C) thymus D) appendix 197) Peyer's patches are found in the distal portion of the ________. A) esophagus B) small intestine C) large intestine D) stomach 198) Lymphatic capillaries are present in ________. A) bones and teeth B) bone marrow C) CNS D) digestive organs 199) What is a bubo? A) a wall in a lymph node B) a lobe of the spleen C) an infected Peyer's patch D) an infected lymph node 200) The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does NOT ________. A) have lymphocytes B) produce hormones C) have a cortex and medulla D) directly fight antigens 201) Large clusters of lymph nodes are NOT found in the ________ region. A) axillary B) cervical C) inguinal D) popliteal 202) Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) Peyer's patches B) palatine tonsils C) lingual tonsils D) islets of Langerhans 203) Which of the following is NOT a method that maintains lymph flow? A) skeletal muscle contraction B) breathing C) valves in lymph vessel walls D) capillary smooth muscle contraction 204) The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ________. A) lingual tonsils B) palatine tonsils C) pharyngeal tonsils D) Peyer's tonsils 205) Which lymphoid organs and tissues are characterized by a cortex and medulla? A) lymph nodes and thymus only B) lymph nodes, thymus and spleen only C) lymph nodes, spleen, and mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues (MALT) only D) spleen and thymus only 206) Which lymphoid organ atrophies as we age? A) tonsils B) appendix C) spleen D) thymus 207) Which of the following is considered a primary lymphoid organ? A) appendix B) tonsils C) spleen D) thymus 208) Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system? A) draining excess interstitial fluid B) carrying out immune responses C) transporting dietary fats D) transporting respiratory gases 209) The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II alveolar cells. The function of type II alveolar cells is to ________. A) secrete surfactant B) trap dust and other debris C) replace mucus in the alveoli D) protect the lungs from bacterial invasion 210) Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is ________. A) less than the pressure in the atmosphere B) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere C) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere D) greater than the intra-alveolar pressure 211) Which of the following is true regarding normal quiet expiration of air? A) It is a passive process that depends on the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during inspiration. B) It depends on the complete lack of surface tension on the alveolar wall. C) It is driven by increased blood CO2 levels. D) It requires contraction of abdominal wall muscles. 212) Which of the following maintains the patency (openness) of the trachea? A) surface tension of water B) surfactant production C) C-shaped cartilage rings D) pseudostratified ciliated epithelium 213) Intrapulmonary pressure is the ________. A) pressure within the pleural cavity B) pressure within the alveoli of the lungs C) negative pressure in the intrapleural space D) difference between atmospheric pressure and respiratory pressure 214) The relationship between gas pressure and gas volume is described by ________. A) Boyle's law B) Henry's law C) Charles' law D) Dalton's law 215) The statement, "in a mixture of gases, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of gases in the mixture" paraphrases ________. A) Henry's law B) Boyle's law C) Dalton's law D) Charles' law 216) Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ________. A) humidifying the air before it enters B) warming the air before it enters C) interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid D) protecting the surface of alveoli from dehydration and other environmental variations 217) As the tension of vocal folds in the larynx increase, the voice becomes ________. A) higher in pitch B) lower in pitch C) louder D) more distinct 218) The Bohr effect describes the tendency for hemoglobin to more readily unload oxygen under which conditions? A) increased pH and PCO2 B) decreased pH and increased PCO2 C) increased pH and decreased PCO2 D) decreased pH and PCO2 219) The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ________. A) loss of oxygen in tissues B) increase of carbon dioxide C) acidosis D) alkalosis 220) The local matching of blood flow with ventilation is ________. A) the Bohr effect B) the Haldane effect C) chloride shifting D) ventilation-perfusion coupling 221) In the plasma, the quantity of oxygen in solution is ________. A) only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in blood B) about equal to the oxygen combined with hemoglobin C) greater than the oxygen combined with hemoglobin D) not present except where it is combined with carrier molecules 222) Which of the following is the leading cause of cancer death for both men and women in North America? A) colorectal B) lung C) esophageal D) skin 223) Which of the choices below describes the forces that act to pull the lungs away from the thorax wall and thus collapse the lungs? A) the natural tendency for the lungs to recoil and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid B) compliance and transpulmonary pressures C) the natural tendency for the lungs to recoil and transpulmonary pressures D) compliance and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid 224) Which of the following counteracts the movement of bicarbonate ions from the RBC? A) the Bohr effect B) the Haldane effect C) chloride shifting D) release of hydrogen ion 225) Hemoglobin has a much greater affinity for carbon monoxide than oxygen. Which principle explains why a hyperbaric chamber (containing high levels of oxygen) can treat carbon monoxide poisoning? A) Dalton's law B) Henry's law C) Boyle's law D) Charles' law 226) Which of the following refers to the movement of air into and out of the lungs? A) pulmonary ventilation B) gas exchange C) internal respiration D) external respiration 227) The major nonelastic source of resistance to air flow in the respiratory passageways is ________. A) surfactant B) surface tension C) friction D) air pressure 228) Which of the following determines lung compliance? A) airway opening B) flexibility of the thoracic cage C) muscles of inspiration D) alveolar surface tension 229) Tidal volume is air ________. A) remaining in the lungs after forced expiration B) exchanged during normal breathing C) inhaled after normal inspiration D) forcibly expelled after normal expiration 230) Which of the choices below determines the direction of respiratory gas movement? A) solubility in water B) partial pressure gradient C) the temperature D) molecular weight and size of the gas molecule 231) Possible causes of hypoxia include ________. A) too little oxygen in the atmosphere B) obstruction of the esophagus C) taking several rapid deep breaths D) getting very cold 232) The lung volume that represents the total volume of exchangeable air is the ________. A) tidal volume B) vital capacity C) inspiratory capacity D) expiratory reserve volume 233) Which of the following is correct regarding acclimatization? A) At high altitudes, hemoglobin's affinity for O2 is increased because BPG concentrations increase. B) When blood O2 levels decline, the kidneys produce more erythropoietin, which stimulates breakdown of red blood cells in the spleen. C) High-altitude conditions always result in lower-than-normal hemoglobin saturation levels because less O2 is available to be loaded. D) Decreases in arterial PO2 cause the peripheral chemoreceptors to become less responsive to increases in PCO2. 234) Which of the following is NOT a stimulus for breathing? A) rising carbon dioxide levels B) rising blood pressure C) arterial PO2 below 60 mm Hg D) acidosis resulting from CO2 retention 235) Which of the following is the best explanation of the benefit in the digestive system having the largest collection of lymphoid tissue (MALT) at the distal end of the small intestine? A) The digestive systems first and foremost job is to digest and absorb nutrients so it puts off immunity for last. B) The huge numbers of bacteria living in the large intestine must be prevented from entering the lumen of the small intestine and being absorbed with food's nutrients into the blood stream. C) The body will actively excrete pathogens out of the body, into the digestive system, to be removed from the body in feces. D) The alkaline secretions of the small intestine aid in the growth of bacteria and these bacteria must be controlled. 236) Bile salts break up the fat globule into smaller fat droplets. This role of bile salts is best described as ________. A) lipid digestion B) lipid absorption C) lipid emulsification D) lipid ingestion 237) A doctor consulting a patient that recently has had their gall bladder removed would likely advise ________. A) eating a low to no carb diet B) eating fewer, but larger meals C) eating foods that are low in fat D) increasing unsaturated fats while eliminating trans fats in their diets 238) A ruptured appendix is life threatening because ________. A) it is likely to cause severe internal bleeding B) it is likely to cause massive infection of the abdominopelvic cavity C) loss of the appendix's function will cause an immune deficiency in the digestive system D) the large intestine will no longer be able to receive digested material from the small intestine 239) All but one of the following is a function of the low pH found in the stomach. Select the description below that does NOT reflect a role of stomach acid. A) Stomach acid denatures proteins making the poly peptide chain more accessible to pepsin digestive enzymes. B) Many potentially harmful bacteria will be prevented entry to the small intestine by stomach acid. C) The stomach's acid catabolically breaks down food stuffs in preparation for absorption. D) Low pH converts pepsinogen to its active form of pepsin, preventing the protease enzyme from digesting the cells that produce it. 240) Fat absorption through the plasma membrane of epithelial cells ________. A) occurs by simple diffusion because lipids are able to penetrate the hydrophobic fatty acid tails within the plasma membrane B) requires enzymes attached to the brush border to further breakdown the fats C) requires vesicular, active transport of the relatively large fatty acids and monoglyceride D) is accomplished by cotransporters that use the concentration gradient of Na+ outside of the cells 241) Select the best explanation for why protease enzymes are secreted in inactive forms. A) The enzymes would digest each other if they were not properly regulated. B) The immunoglobulins protecting the digestive tract would be digested without proper regulation of protein digesting enzymes. C) The cells producing inactive enzymes are themselves protected from the enzymes until they are safely within the lumen of the GI tract. D) Inactive enzymes will simply be expelled with the feces if no protein is present in the digesting food; this will help to conserve energy. 242) Select the description below that illustrates a difference between a sphincter and circular muscle. A) A sphincter is composed of smooth muscle while circular muscle is composed of skeletal muscle tissue. B) A sphincter is a thickening of circular muscle that can prevent the movement of digesting materials while circular muscle is involved in propulsion digesting material. C) Sphincters are found throughout the GI tract while circular muscle is found only in the proximal portion of the GI tract. D) Sphincters are found in the proximal portion of the GI tract while circular muscle is found in the distal portions. 243) In the enteric nervous system, a long reflexive pathway has an advantage over a short reflexive pathway in the fact that ________. A) long reflexive pathways last much longer than short reflexive pathways B) long reflexive pathways are quicker to respond than short reflexive pathways C) long reflexive pathways can be stimulated by things outside of the GI tract D) long reflexive pathways can respond throughout the entire length of the GI tract while short reflexive pathways can only respond in the proximal end 244) The sight of food can trigger a series of events that results in the release of gastric juice. All but one of the following is true in regards to the previous statement. Select the one answer that is NOT true. A) This is an example of a long reflexive pathway. B) This prepares the stomach for food before its arrival in the stomach. C) The motor nerves of this pathway are part of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. D) The cerebral cortex, hypothalamus and medulla oblongata are all involved in processing the stimulatory information. 245) All of the following are true of swallowing (deglutition) except one. Select the statement that is NOT true of swallowing. A) The mouth, pharynx and esophagus all take part in swallowing. B) The voluntary phase of swallowing takes place within the mouth. C) The epiglottis assists in propelling food into the trachea. D) The involuntary portion of swallowing takes place in the pharynx. 246) Some antacid drugs block histamine receptors, resulting in reduction of the production and excretion of stomach acid. These drugs have the biggest effect on which of the following? A) surface epithelial cells B) chief cells C) parietal cells D) mucous neck cells 247) Which of the following is NOT a function of cholecystokinin (CCK)? A) increase production of stomach acid B) increase production of pancreatic juice C) stimulate gall bladder to release bile D) open hepatopancreatic sphincter 248) Generally, the hormones secretin and cholecystokinin which are released by duodenal enteroendocrine cells will ________. A) decrease the activities of the accessory digestive organs B) increase stomach emptying C) increase the release of digestive enzymes and bile D) increase the force of stomach contractions 249) Select the one response below that would NOT result from a drug that blocks histamine receptors in the cells lining the stomach. A) It would lower the activity of parietal cells. B) It would reduce the symptoms of heartburn. C) It would cause the release of secretin and cholecystokinin. D) It would raise the pH of the stomach. 250) Specific enteroendocrine cells of the stomach, called G cells, are stimulated by partially digested proteins, caffeine, and rising pH. When stimulated, G cells secrete ________. A) ghrelin B) pepsin C) hydrochloric acid D) gastrin 251) The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located ________. A) in the glandular tissue that surround the organ lumen B) in the walls of the tract organs C) in the pons and medulla D) in the oral cavity 252) The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to ________. A) carry toxins to the kidney for disposal through the urinary tract B) collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing in the liver C) distribute hormones throughout the body D) return glucose to the general circulation when blood sugar is low 253) The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called ________. A) digestion B) absorption C) ingestion D) secretion 254) When we ingest large molecules such as lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins, they must undergo catabolic reactions whereby enzymes split these molecules. This series of reactions is called ________. A) absorption B) secretion C) chemical digestion D) mechanical breakdown 255) The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called ________. A) mesenteries B) lamina propria C) serosal lining D) mucosal lining 256) From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen. A) muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa, and submucosa B) serosa, mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis externa C) submucosa, serosa, muscularis externa, and mucosa D) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa 257) Which of the following is NOT a factor that helps create the stomach mucosal barrier? A) thick coating of bicarbonate-rich mucus B) tight junctions of epithelial mucosa cells C) replacing of damaged epithelial mucosa cells D) secretion of pepsinogen 258) What part of the tooth bears the force and resists the friction of chewing? A) crown B) enamel C) pulp D) cementum 259) The capillaries that nourish the epithelium and absorb digested nutrients lie in the ________. A) submucosa B) serosa C) adventitia D) lamina propria 260) Choose the incorrect statement regarding bile. A) Bile is both an excretory product and a digestive secretion. B) Bile functions to emulsify fats. C) Bile functions to carry bilirubin formed from breakdown of worn-out RBCs. D) Bile contains enzymes for digestion. 261) The descending limb of the nephron loop ________. A) is not permeable to water B) is freely permeable to sodium and urea C) pulls water by osmosis into the lumen of the tubule D) contains fluid that becomes more concentrated as it moves down into the medulla 262) Select the correct statement about the ureters. A) Ureters contain sphincters at the entrance to the bladder to prevent the backflow of urine. B) The epithelium is stratified squamous like the skin, which allows a great deal of stretch. C) The ureters are capable of peristalsis like that of the gastrointestinal tract. D) The ureter is innervated by parasympathetic nerve endings only. 263) The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because it ________. A) ensures adequate energy for the adrenal glands to operate efficiently B) stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position C) is necessary as a barrier between the adrenal glands and kidneys D) produces vitamin D and other chemicals needed by the kidney 264) The renal corpuscle is made up of ________. A) Bowman's capsule and glomerulus B) the descending nephron loop C) the renal pyramid D) the renal papilla 265) The functional and structural unit of the kidneys is the ________. A) nephron B) nephron loop C) glomerular capsule D) capsular space 266) Which of the following does NOT describe the juxtaglomerular complex? A) It regulates the rate of filtrate formation. B) It helps control systemic blood pressure. C) Its granular cells produce rennin. D) Its macula densa cells produce aldosterone. 267) The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane is ________. A) the ionic electrochemical gradient B) protein-regulated diffusion C) glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure) D) the size of the pores in the basement membrane of the capillaries 268) Which of the following acts as the trigger for the initiation of micturition (voiding)? A) the stretching of the bladder wall B) motor neurons C) the pressure of the fluid in the bladder D) the sympathetic efferents 269) The filtration membrane includes all EXCEPT ________. A) glomerular endothelium B) podocytes C) renal fascia D) basement membrane 270) The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is ________. A) active transport B) osmosis C) filtration D) cotransport with sodium ions 271) The glomerular capsular space contains ________. A) urine B) blood C) filtrate D) plasma 272) The macula densa cells respond to ________. A) aldosterone B) antidiuretic hormone C) changes in pressure in the tubule D) changes in Na+ content of the filtrate 273) Which of the following is NOT reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule? A) Na+ B) K+ C) glucose D) creatinine 274) The fluid in glomerular capsule is similar to plasma except that it does NOT contain a significant amount of ________. A) glucose B) hormones C) electrolytes D) plasma protein 275) Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it ________. A) is not reabsorbed by the tubule cells B) increases the rate of glomerular filtration C) increases secretion of ADH D) inhibits the release of ADH 276) The function of angiotensin II is to ________. A) constrict arterioles and increase blood pressure B) decrease the production of aldosterone C) decrease arterial blood pressure D) decrease water absorption 277) An important physical characteristic of urine is its specific gravity or density, which is ________. A) the same as water B) slightly higher than water C) much higher than water D) less than water 278) Place the following in correct sequence from the formation of a drop of urine to its elimination from the body. 1. major calyx 2. minor calyx 3. nephron 4. urethra 5. ureter 6. collecting duct A) 3, 1, 2, 6, 5, 4 B) 6, 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 C) 2, 1, 3, 6, 5, 4 D) 3, 6, 2, 1, 5, 4 279) Select the correct statement about the nephrons. A) The parietal layer of the glomerular capsule is simple squamous epithelium. B) The glomerulus is correctly described as the proximal end of the proximal convoluted tubule. C) Podocytes are the branching epithelial cells that line the tubules of the nephron. D) Filtration slits are the pores that give fenestrated capillaries their name. 280) What would happen if the capsular hydrostatic pressure were increased above normal? A) Net filtration would increase above normal. B) Net filtration would decrease. C) Filtration would increase in proportion to the increase in capsular pressure. D) Capsular osmotic pressure would compensate so that filtration would not change. 281) Which of the following is NOT a part of the juxtaglomerular complex? A) granular cells B) macula densa C) podocyte cells D) mesangial cells 282) Which of the following is incorrect? A) The kidneys produce a large volume of dilute urine when overhydrated. B) The kidneys produce a small volume of concentrated urine when dehydrated. C) Urine concentration and volume are determined by countercurrent mechanisms D) The concentration of urine is lower when urine volume is reduced. 283) Reabsorption of high levels of glucose and amino acids in the filtrate is accomplished by ________. A) facilitated diffusion B) passive transport C) countertransport D) secondary active transport 284) Which of the choices below is a function of the nephron loop? A) form a large volume of very concentrated urine or a small volume of very dilute urine B) form a large volume of very dilute urine or a small volume of very concentrated urine C) absorb electrolytes actively and water by osmosis in the same segments D) absorb water and electrolytes into the tubular network 285) What is the effect of antidiuretic hormone on the cells of the collecting duct? A) causes aquaporins to be inserted into the apical membranes B) triggers synthesis of more sodium channels in the apical membranes C) triggers synthesis of more potassium channels in the apical membranes D) inhibits sodium reabsorption through the apical membranes 286) Which of the following hormones acting on the collecting duct is most responsible for retaining sodium ions in the blood? A) antidiuretic hormone B) parathyroid hormone C) atrial natriuretic peptide D) aldosterone 287) The body's water volume is closely tied to the level of which of the following ions? A) calcium ions B) potassium ions C) hydrogen ions D) sodium ions 288) The term hypotonic hydration refers to ________. A) the feeling one might have after profuse sweating with exertion B) the unpleasant feeling people have after drinking too much liquor C) a condition that may result from renal insufficiency or drinking excessive amounts of water D) a condition that is caused by high levels of sodium in the extracellular fluid compartment 289) When antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels are low, ________. A) most of the water reaching the collecting ducts is not reabsorbed B) aquaporins are inserted into the collecting duct principal cell apical membranes C) nearly all of the filtered water is reabsorbed D) a small volume of concentrated urine is excreted 290) Which of the following hormones is important in the regulation of sodium ion concentrations in the extracellular fluid? A) antidiuretic hormone B) erythropoietin C) aldosterone D) renin 291) Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is a hormone that is made in the atria of the heart. The influence of this hormone is to ________. A) enhance atrial contractions B) activate the renin-angiotensin mechanism C) prevent pH changes caused by organic acids D) reduce blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting sodium and water retention 292) Respiratory acidosis can occur when ________. A) a person consumes excessive amounts of antacids B) a person's breathing is shallow due to obstruction C) a runner has completed a very long marathon D) the kidneys secrete hydrogen ions 293) Total body water is NOT a function of which of the following? A) age B) body mass C) amount of body fat D) amount of water ingested 294) Which of the choices below is NOT an essential role of salts in the body? A) neuromuscular activity B) membrane permeability C) secretory activity D) anabolism of lipids 295) Which of the choices below exerts primary control over sodium levels in the body? A) ADH B) aldosterone C) water levels D) glucocorticoids 296) The fluid link between the external and internal environment is ________. A) plasma B) intracellular fluid C) interstitial fluid D) cerebrospinal fluid 297) In a car accident, Jane suffered a chest injury that resulted in impaired breathing and respiratory acidosis. How will her body compensate for this imbalance? A) Kidneys retain hydrogen ions. B) Kidneys retain bicarbonate ions. C) Kidneys eliminate bicarbonate ions. D) Kidneys eliminate carbon dioxide. 298) Whereas sodium is found mainly in the extracellular fluid, most ________ is found in the intracellular fluid. A) iron B) chloride C) potassium D) bicarbonate 299) Which of the following describes the distribution of sodium and potassium between cells and body fluids? A) K+ mainly in the cells, Na+ in the body fluids B) Na+ mainly in the cells, K+ in the body fluids C) equal amounts of each ion in the cells and body fluids D) little of either in the cells, but large amounts of each in the body fluids 300) For bulk flow across capillary walls, ________. A) hydrostatic pressure of blood forces nearly protein-free plasma out of the blood into the interstitial space B) osmotic pressure of plasma proteins pulls fluid from the capillary into the interstitial space C) fluid runs into lymphatic capillaries that empty into the interstitial space D) hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial space returns fluid to the capillary 301) The single most important factor influencing potassium ion secretion is ________. A) the potassium ion content in the renal tubule cells B) the pH of the intracellular fluid C) intracellular sodium levels D) potassium ion concentration in extracellular fluid 302) Amphoteric molecules _______. A) can function as acids at low pH B) can function as bases at high pH C) can function as an acid or a base depending on the pH D) trigger pH imbalances and must be neutralized by buffers 303) A falling blood pH and a rising partial pressure of carbon dioxide due to pneumonia or emphysema indicates ________. A) respiratory acidosis B) respiratory alkalosis C) metabolic acidosis D) metabolic alkalosis 304) The movement of fluids between cellular compartments ________. A) requires active transport B) is regulated by osmotic and hydrostatic forces C) requires ATP for the transport to take place D) always involves filtration 305) What hormone reduces blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting nearly all events that promote vasoconstriction and sodium ion and water retention? A) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B) aldosterone C) atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) D) thyroxine 306) When a strong acid such as HCl is added to the carbonic acid buffer system, _________. A) carbonic acid is converted into bicarbonate B) more carbonic acid is formed C) hydrochloric acid is neutralized by sodium hydroxide D) the blood plasma pH is reduced 307) Which of the following is NOT a chemical buffer system? A) bicarbonate B) phosphate C) nitrogen D) protein 308) Which of the following is NOT a trigger for juxtaglomerular granular cells to release renin? A) sympathetic stimulation B) decreased filtrate NaCl concentration C) decreased stretch of the granular cells of the afferent arterioles D) increased extracellular fluid water levels 309) Which of the following statements is true regarding fluid shifts? A) Nonelectrolytes are the controlling factor in directing fluid shifts. B) Electrolytes are not as important as proteins in regulating fluid shifts in the body. C) Electrolytes have greater osmotic power than nonelectrolytes and therefore have the greatest ability to cause fluid shifts. D) There are always more positive electrolytes than negative in a solution; it is therefore impossible to follow fluid shifts. 310) Which of the following would describe nonelectrolytes? A) inorganic salts B) organic bases C) inorganic acids D) polar covalent compounds 311) The maintenance of the proper pH of the body fluids may be the result of ________. A) the control of respiratory ventilation B) the operation of the various buffer systems in the stomach C) the active secretion of OH- into the filtrate by the kidney tubule cells D) control of the acids produced in the stomach 312) Select the statement which is FALSE. A) Further genetic variation typically does not occur after meiosis I. B) Meiosis II is essentially the same process as mitosis except the starting cells are haploid (n). C) Meiosis II is essentially the same process as mitosis except the genetic material will not replicate before division takes place. D) Crossing over is a source of genetic variability seen in meiosis while independent assortment is a source of genetic variability seen in mitosis. 313) All but one of the following statements are true regarding the differences between early and late spermatids. Select the answer below that does NOT reflect a difference between early and late spermatids. A) Early spermatids have not undergone spermiogenesis. B) Early spermatids have not undergone meiosis and are still diploid. C) Early spermatids have not formed flagella. D) Early spermatids are round and have excessive cytoplasm. 314) During spermiogenesis ________. A) the acrosome migrates towards the anterior end of the spermatid because its hydrolytic enzymes will be needed for penetration when the sperm contacts the egg during fertilization B) the acrosome migrates towards the posterior end of the spermatid because its hydrolytic enzymes will be needed for digestion of the excessive cytoplasm around the flagella of the developing sperm C) the acrosome migrates towards the anterior end of the spermatid because its pointy shape helps the sperm to move more efficiently D) the acrosome migrates towards the posterior end of the spermatid because of its ability to propel the flagella moving the sperm through the female reproductive system towards the egg 315) All but one of the events described below occur during spermiogenesis. Select the event that does NOT occur during spermiogenesis. A) Mitochondria form around the proximal end of the flagellum. They will provide the ATP to drive the motion of the flagellum. B) Excessive cytoplasm will be shed to reduce unneeded mass of the maturing sperm. C) The centrioles migrate to the posterior end of the developing sperm to form the microtubules that make up the flagellum. D) Mitochondrial DNA is packaged into the nucleus to be delivered to the egg during fertilization. 316) All but one of the following statements is true with regard to the blood testis barrier. Select the one statement that is FALSE. A) The cells that form the blood testis barrier are joined by tight junctions. B) The barrier prevents the spermatocytes from exposing their unique antigens to the immune system. C) The barrier marks the border between the basal compartment and the adluminal compartment. D) The barrier is made up of astrocytes that surround blood vessels in the testis. 317) Of the following statements, select the statement that is NOT true of uterine function. A) The myometrium contracts to expel the fetus during childbirth. B) The endometrium has a functional layer that the embryo will implant into. C) The rhythmic, reverse peristalsis of the uterus can propel sperm toward the egg. D) The narrow portion of the uterus near the cervix is the most typical site of fertilization. 318) The oral contraceptive pill, informally called "the pill," contains an estrogen and progesterone, or a synthetic mimic of this hormone. The combination of these two hormones, taken in the pill and circulating in the blood, works because ________. A) the hormones create an acid condition in the vagina that acts as a spermicide B) the hormones cause the woman's body to mimic the activities of a pregnancy and disrupt the ovarian cycle, preventing ovulation C) the hormones prevent the proliferative or secretory phase of the menstrual cycle and the embryo will have no place to implant D) the hormones cause a thickening of the mucus plug at the cervix that prevents sperm from penetrating the womb and reaching the ovulated egg 319) The diploid number of chromosomes in a human is 46. Therefore, the number of chromosomes in a primary spermatocyte or primary oocyte is ________. A) 23 B) 46 C) 92 D) 38 320) The dartos and cremaster muscles are important to the integrity of the male reproductive system. Which of the following best describes the role they play? A) They contract to push sperm along the ductus deferens. B) They regulate the temperature of the testes. C) They are responsible for penile erection. D) They contract to allow ejaculation. 321) The ability of sperm cells to move along the ductus deferens is due to ________. A) gravity B) peristaltic contractions C) enzymatic activity D) hormonal action 322) The most important risk for testicular cancer in young males is ________. A) smoking B) a diet high in fat C) failure of the testis to make their normal descent D) sexually transmitted infections 323) Which of the following glands are responsible for producing 70% of semen volume? A) the seminal vesicles B) the bulbourethral glands C) the prostate D) the pituitary 324) Which of the following hormones controls the release of anterior pituitary gonadotropins? A) LH B) FSH C) GnRH D) testosterone 325) The critical factor that determines gender during development is ________. A) presence of progesterone B) inhibition of estrogen C) the SRY gene D) lack of an X chromosome 326) The structures that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a site for fertilization, are called the ________. A) Graafian follicles B) uterine tubes C) infundibula D) fimbriae 327) If gametes were diploid like somatic cells, how many chromosomes would the zygote contain? A) Twice the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to double and normal development could not occur. B) Triple the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to triple and normal development would not occur. C) Half the diploid number with no change in development. D) There is no relationship between gametes and somatic cells. 328) Human egg and sperm are similar in that ________. A) about the same number of each is produced per month B) they have the same degree of motility C) they have the same number of chromosomes D) they are about the same size 329) The constancy of the chromosome number from one cell generation to the next is maintained through ________. A) mitosis B) meiosis C) cytokinesis D) DNA synthesis 330) Fertilization generally occurs in the ________. A) ovary B) uterus C) vagina D) uterine tubes 331) Which of the following female structures is homologous to the male scrotum? A) labia majora B) labia minora C) clitoris D) vagina 332) In humans, separation of the cells at the two-cell state following fertilization may lead to the production of twins, which in this case would be ________. A) dizygotic B) genetically identical C) fraternal D) potentially of different sexes 333) Which of the following is incurable? A) gonorrhea B) genital herpes C) trichomoniasis D) syphilis 334) Effects of estrogen include ________. A) increased oiliness of the skin B) deepening of the voice C) growth of the breasts at puberty D) growth of the larynx 335) Secretion of progesterone stimulates ________. A) contraction of uterine muscles B) preparation of the mammary glands for lactation C) proliferation of the uterine myometrium D) development of the female secondary sex characteristics 336) The cells that produce testosterone in the testis are called ________. A) spermatocytes B) spermatogonia C) sustentacular cells D) interstitial endocrine cells 337) If a woman has just ended her menstrual phase, when is she most likely to ovulate? A) within the next 4 days B) in about 10 days C) in about 14 days D) in about 24 days

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