Medical Exam Questions PDF

1.The right forearm of a client who had a purified protein derivative (PPD) test for tuberculosis is reddened and raised about 3mm where the test was given. This PPD would be read as: a) Positive b) Negative c) Inconclusive d) Borderline 2.Dehydration is the primary concern in severe diarrhea. A pa...

1.The right forearm of a client who had a purified protein derivative (PPD) test for tuberculosis is reddened and raised about 3mm where the test was given. This PPD would be read as: a) Positive b) Negative c) Inconclusive d) Borderline 2.Dehydration is the primary concern in severe diarrhea. A patient with a recent history of gastroenteritis presents with severe bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain. The nurse suspects: a) Salmonella infection b) Shigella infection c) E. coli infection d) Rotavirus infection 3.A pregnant woman exposed to a child with chickenpox asks the nurse what to do. The nurse should tell the patient that: a) She can develop chickenpox without concern b) VZIG can prevent or lessen the severity of chickenpox in high-risk individuals c) She should wait until symptoms appear before seeking care d) Chickenpox is not a concern during pregnancy 4.Scarlet fever caused by Group A Streptococcus requires: a) Antiviral therapy b) Pain management c) Antibiotic therapy d) No treatment 5.The nurse suspects infective endocarditis. The most important diagnostic test to confirm this condition is: a) Chest X-ray b) Electrocardiogram (ECG) c) Blood cultures d) Echocardiogram 6.A child presents with a red, itchy rash that began on the chest and abdomen, later spreading to the arms and legs. The rash includes papules, vesicles, and crusted scabs. The priority action is to: a) Instruct the parents on airborne and contact precautions b) Administer antibiotics c) Encourage fluids and rest d) Initiate a physical assessment 7.A client with primary TB infection can expect to develop: a) A negative skin test b) A positive skin test c) A normal chest X-ray d) Symptoms of active disease 8.A client was infected with TB 10 years ago but never developed the disease. He’s now being treated for cancer. The client begins to develop signs of TB. This is known as: a) Latent infection b) Reactivated infection c) Primary infection d) Active infection 9.The definitive diagnostic test for TB is: a) Chest X-ray b) Sputum culture c) Blood culture d) Skin test 10.A client with a positive Mantoux test result will be sent for a: a) Chest X-ray (TO DETERMINE THE EXTENT OF THE LESIONS b) Sputum culture c) Blood test d) CT scan 11.A client with a positive skin test for TB isn’t showing signs of active disease. To help prevent the development of active TB, the client should be treated with isoniazid, 300mg daily, for: a) 3-6 months b) 6-9 months c) 9-12 months d) 12-15 months 12.A client diagnosed with active TB would be hospitalized primarily for: a) Antibiotic therapy b) Monitoring vital signs c) To prevent spread of the disease d) Nutritional support 13.What is the causative agent of Malaria a) Protozoan parasite b) Plasmodium c) Giardia d) Leishmania 14.The mosquito responsible for transmitting dengue fever is: a) Anopheles mosquito b) Culex mosquito c) Aedes aegypti mosquito d) Tabanus mosquito 15.Both malaria and dengue commonly present with: a) Muscle weakness b) High fever c) Abdominal bloating d) Cough and congestion 16.Severe dengue can lead to hemorrhagic complications due to plasma leakage, which may progress to: a) Dehydration b) Shock and organ failure c) Acute renal failure d) Chronic fatigue syndrome 17.What is the antigen test that is specific to dengue and helps detect the virus? a) NS1 antigen test b) PCR test c) Rapid antibody test d) Blood culture test 18.Plasmodium parasites invade and destroy red blood cells, leading to: a) Dehydration b) Anemia and complications such as organ damage c) Leukopenia d) Platelet aggregation 19.Pregnant women and children are more susceptible to severe complications from malaria and dengue due to: a) Weaker immune systems and increased physiological vulnerability b) High body mass index c) Hormonal changes during pregnancy d) Decreased vitamin D levels 20.Vector control measures are effective for preventing both: a) Malaria and tuberculosis b) Dengue and malaria c) Malaria and cholera d) Dengue and influenza 21.Dengue often causes thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), leading to: a) Anemia b) Bleeding risks (WHICH IS NOT TYPICAL FEATURE OF MALARIA) c) Jaundice d) Elevated blood pressure 22.Parkinson’s Disease tends to affect the substantia nigra of the midbrain, which leads to the depletion of: a) Serotonin b) Dopamine c) Acetylcholine d) GABA 23.The chickenpox virus spreads through: a) Air b) Direct contact c) Droplets d) Ingestion 24.Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant. Patients can have vaccines while taking this medication but NOT live vaccines, such as: a) Influenza vaccine b) Shingles vaccine, MMR c) Hepatitis B vaccine d) Pneumococcal vaccine 25.During a Tensilon test, edrophonium is administered. This medication prevents the breakdown of acetylcholine, which will allow more of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine to be present at the neuromuscular junction, hence: a) Worsening muscle weakness b) Improving muscle strength if myasthenia gravis is present (Edrophonium) c) No effect on muscle strength d) Reducing muscle spasms 26.Contact isolation precaution is observed for a patient with: a) Influenza b) Gastroenteritis (CONTACT) c) Tuberculosis d) Chickenpox 27.Bouchard’s Nodes are seen during a head-to-toe assessment of a patient with osteoarthritis. These nodes appear on the: a) Distal interphalangeal joints b) Proximal interphalangeal joints c) Wrists d) Knees 28.Rubber sole shoes can make walking difficult, especially when the patient has a shuffling gait because these types of shoes tend to stick to the floor and can cause the patient to trip. a) it is best to wear low heel, smooth soles (not slick or hard). b) Stick to the floor and can cause tripping c) Improve stability d) Increase balance 29.Bradykinesia is a common symptom in Parkinson’s Disease and refers to: a) Abnormal posture b) Slow movements affecting swallowing, facial expressions, and coordination c) Tremors at rest d) Muscle rigidity 30.Baclofen and Diazepam are medications that can help treat muscle spasms in a patient with: a) Parkinson's Disease b) Rheumatoid arthritis c) Multiple sclerosis d) Osteoarthritis 31.The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) mainly attacks: a) White blood cells b) CD4 positive cells c) Red blood cells d) Platelets 32.COVID-19 is primarily spread to others via: a) Airborne transmission b) Droplet transmission c) Contact transmission d) Fecal-oral route 33.A mask should be removed outside the patient’s room, and it is best to perform hand hygiene with: a) Alcohol-based hand rub b) Soap and water c) Hand sanitizer d) Antiseptic wipes 34.Impetigo tends to be most commonly found on the: a) Back and legs b) Mouth and nose c) Hands and feet d) Scalp 35.A 6-year-old female is diagnosed with Varicella. The type of isolation precautions initiated for this patient are: a) Airborne and contact precautions b) Droplet precautions c) Standard precautions d) Contact precautions only 36.Contact precautions would be initiated for a patient diagnosed with Hepatitis A and who is incontinent of stool. The rationale is to: a Prevent cross-contamination b) Prevent airborne transmission c) Prevent contact with body fluids d) Prevent fluid imbalances 37.A patient with Disseminated Herpes Zoster requires routine tracheostomy suction. The appropriate PPE to wear includes: a) Gloves only b) Surgical mask, gown, and gloves c) N95 mask, face shield, gown, gloves d) Face shield only 38.The most common infectious agents that cause Impetigo are: a) Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa c) Escherichia coli d) Streptococcus pneumoniae 39.A positive Kernig's sign and nuchal rigidity are signs of: a) Viral meningitis b) Bacterial meningitis c) Tuberculosis d) Tetanus 40.Rifampin or rifampicin causes body fluids to turn: a) Green b) Yellow c) Orange d) Pink 41.A patient with active tuberculosis is taking Ethambutol. As the nurse, the priority to assess is the patient’s: a) Blood pressure b) Vision c) Respiratory rate d) Weight 42.Rheumatoid arthritis is a form of arthritis that is: a) Caused by infection b) An autoimmune condition causing inflammation in the joints, specifically the synovium c) Related to old age d) Caused by trauma 43.Mycoplasma pneumoniae is the infectious agent for a patient with: a) Walking pneumonia b) Tuberculosis c) Pneumococcal pneumonia d) Legionnaires' disease 44.Bordetella pertussis is the causative agent of: a) Influenza b) Tuberculosis c) Whooping cough d) Pneumonia 45.Osler nodes are: a) Painful, raised lesions on the fingers and toes b) Non-painful rashes c) Hard, fixed nodules in the joints d) Subcutaneous masses 46.Escherichia coli infections are often associated with: a) Contaminated food or water b) Poor hygiene c) Respiratory droplets d) Human-to-human transmission 47.E. coli infection can be spread through contact with: a) Contaminated food or water(ORAL) b) Airborne particles c) Blood transfusions d) Fecal-oral route 48.A construction worker presents with flu-like symptoms, including cough, fever, and night sweats. They mention working in an area with bat droppings. The nurse should anticipate: a) Chest X-ray and fungal culture b) Tuberculosis screening c) Bacterial culture d) Blood cultures 49.A patient bitten by a stray dog three days ago is worried about infection. The initial intervention is to: a) Apply a tetanus vaccine b) Administer rabies post-exposure prophylaxis immediately c) Clean the wound with antiseptic d) Observe the wound for 24 hours 50.A patient with myasthenia gravis reports difficulty swallowing and speaking. The nurse should first: a) Assess nutritional intake b) Assess respiratory rate and oxygen saturation c) Administer pain medications d) Instruct the patient to rest 51.Greenish-yellow discharge and dysuria suggest: a) Chlamydia or gonorrhea (A nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) is the diagnostic standard for STIs). b) Cystitis c) Vaginal candidiasis d) Trichomoniasis 52.The diagnostic standard for STIs is: a) Blood culture b) Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) c) Urine culture d) Pap smear 53.Tuberculosis is an airborne disease requiring the use of: a) Standard precautions b) Droplet precautions c) An N95 respirator and a negative-pressure room d) Contact precautions 54.Dengue vaccines are not routinely administered annually and are available only for: a) Certain populations in endemic areas b) Travelers to endemic areas c) Pregnant women d) Patients with chronic conditions 55.A patient presents with fever, jaundice, and recent travel to a rural area. They mention swimming in a river. The priority nursing intervention is: a) Administer an anti-malarial drug b) Prepare the patient for blood cultures to test for leptospirosis c) Initiate isolation precautions d) Begin antiviral treatment for hepatitis 56.A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing an exacerbation with increased shortness of breath and wheezing. The nurse should first assess: a) Heart sounds b) Respiratory rate and depth for signs of hyperventilation c) Oxygen saturation levels d) Abdominal tenderness 57.Intermittent claudication, weak peripheral pulses, and cool extremities are characteristic signs of: a) Deep vein thrombosis b) Pulmonary embolism c) Peripheral artery disease d) Chronic venous insufficiency 58.It is critical to monitor the oxygen saturation of a patient with suspected PE to assess: a) The severity of hypoxemia b) Fluid status c) Blood pressure d) Nutritional status 59.Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, as it rapidly counteracts: a) Airway swelling, hypotension, and other systemic effects of the reaction b) Histamine release c) Increased heart rate d) Vascular permeability 60.A 35-year-old female patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is hospitalized due to a flare-up. She complains of joint pain, fever, and fatigue. The most appropriate medication to manage her condition acutely is: a) Methotrexate b) Prednisone c) Hydroxychloroquine d) Azathioprine