Test 4 Practice Multiple Choice Questions PDF

Test 4 Practice Multiple Choice Questions MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following does NOT correctly describe kidney function? A) They contribute significantly to long-term reg...

Test 4 Practice Multiple Choice Questions MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following does NOT correctly describe kidney function? A) They contribute significantly to long-term regulation of arterial blood pressure by maintaining the proper plasma volume. B) They produce urine of a constant composition at all times, in order to maintain homeostasis of extracellular fluid. C) They excrete metabolic waste products. D) They assist in maintaining proper acid-base balance in the body. E) They secrete hormones. 2. An individual has been experiencing a fever and a feeling of urgency to urinate every few minutes, even though they have a very low urine volume. A doctor says that they have a bacterial infection of her bladder. An ultrasound of the ureters indicates that there is no infection in the ureters. Where did the infection begin? A) Her urethra B) Her nephrons C) Her renal arteries D) Her renal pelvis 3. Which correctly describes a basic renal process? A) Fluid is filtered from Bowman's capsule into the glomerulus. B) Substances are secreted from the tubule into the peritubular capillaries. C) Substances are reabsorbed from the peritubular capillaries into the tubular Lumen. D) Substances are actively secreted from glomerular capillaries into Bowman's Capsule. E) Fluid moves by bulk flow from glomerular capillaries into Bowman's space. 4. The amount of a substance that is excreted in the urine is equal to the amount that is_________ plus the amount that is_________ minus the amount that is_________. A) filtered; reabsorbed; secreted B) reabsorbed; filtered; secreted C) secreted; reabsorbed; filtered D) filtered; secreted; reabsorbed E) reabsorbed; secreted; filtered 5. Which of the following is least likely to be filtered into Bowman's capsule in a normal, healthy person? A) Glucose B) Plasma protein C) Sodium D) Urea E) Bicarbonate ion 6. All of the following substances are present in proximal tubular fluid in the kidney, but which one is NOT normally present in urine? A) Ca2+ B) H+ C) K+ D) HPO42- E) Glucose 7. Which one of the following substances is LEAST dependent on the kidney for regulation of its plasma concentration? A) Water B) Na+ C) K+ D) HPO42- E) Glucose 8. You have a patient with extensive birth defects that affect the kidney anatomy. Nevertheless, she does have some kidney function. One thing you’ve noticed in the labs is extremely low renin secretion. Which of the following anatomical locations is likely to exhibit abnormal development? A) The descending limb of the loop of Henle B) The glomerular capillaries C) The juxtaglomerular apparatus D) The proximal tubule E) The efferent arteriole 9. Which correctly describes the composition of the glomerular filtrate? A) It is identical to urine, but has a much smaller flow rate. B) It is identical to urine, but has a much larger flow rate. C) It is identical to blood plasma, except it lacks red blood cells. D) It is similar to plasma, except it does not contain glucose. E) It is similar to plasma, except it does not contain plasma proteins. 10. Which of the following statements concerning the process of glomerular filtration is correct? A) The hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's space opposes filtration. B) The glomerular filtration rate is limited by a transport maximum. C) All of the plasma that enters the glomerular capillaries is filtered. D) The osmotic force due to plasma proteins favors filtration. E) The hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries opposes filtration. 11. Which equation is equal to the net glomerular filtration pressure? A) GFP = hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries - hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule - osmotic pressure due to protein in Bowman's capsule B) GFP = osmotic pressure due to protein in plasma - hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries - hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule C) GFP = hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries + hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule + osmotic pressure due to protein in plasma D) GFP = hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries + hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule - osmotic pressure due to protein in plasma E) GFP = hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries - hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule - osmotic force due to proteins in plasma 12. Constriction of the_________ decreases hydrostatic pressure in_________. A) afferent arterioles; glomerular capillaries B) efferent arterioles; proximal convoluted tubules C) renal vein; peritubular capillaries D) efferent arterioles; glomerular capillaries E) efferent arterioles; Bowman's capsule 13. Which is TRUE regarding renal tubular reabsorption? A) Reabsorption of Na+ from the proximal tubule occurs as a result of water Reabsorption. B) Reabsorption of glucose saturates at a maximum transport rate. C) Urea reabsorption cannot occur at any point along the nephron. D) Toxic substances are removed from the body by reabsorption from peritubular capillaries into the proximal tubule. E) Reabsorption of Na+ only occurs from nephron regions that come after the descending limb of the loop of Henle. 14. Which of the following describes tubular reabsorption in the kidney? A) The movement of substances from the peritubular capillaries into the tubular fluid B) The movement of substances from the proximal tubule into the loop of Henle C) Transepithelial transport from the lumen of the tubule into renal interstitial fluid D) Movement of Na+, Cl-, and water from glomerular capillaries into Bowman's Capsule E) Transport of solutes from renal medullary interstitial fluid into collecting duct 15. Which of the following substances undergoes renal tubular secretion? A) Ca2+ B) Na+ C) K+ D) H20 16. Which of the following is TRUE about how water is handled by the nephron? A) Water is filtered out of glomerular capillaries by bulk flow. B) Water is actively reabsorbed from the proximal tubule, and Na+ follows down its diffusion gradient. C) Water is actively secreted into the descending loop of Henle. D) The permeability of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is modified by Vasopressin. E) Vasopressin inserts pumps in the collecting duct membrane that move water against its concentration gradient. 17. You are a scientist for the Federal Drug Administration (FDA). An agricultural company wants to market a new pesticide they have developed for use on products in the United States. This pesticide is hydrophilic, has a small molecular weight (it is slightly smaller than glucose), and it does not bind to any proteins. Which of the following is an appropriate hypothesis for how this drug will be found in the body? A) The pesticide will mostly be cleared in the feces as it will bind to cholesterol, which is added to the GI tract. B) The pesticide will remain in the blood for a long period as it is not filtered or secreted by the urinary tract. C) The pesticide will mostly be cleared in the urine as it will be filtered but not Reabsorbed. D) The pesticide will be cleared through the skin as it will diffuse through the skin layers and evaporate from the surface. 18. In what segment of the nephron is the greatest fraction of filtered water reabsorbed? A) The proximal tubule B) The ascending limb of the loop of Henle C) The distal convoluted tubule D) The collecting ducts E) The descending limb of the loop of Henle 19. In which region of the nephron does the reabsorption of water vary the most in response to variation in the state of hydration? A) The glomerulus B) The proximal convoluted tubule C) The loop of Henle D) The distal convoluted tubule E) The collecting duct 20. Which is NOT true about the countercurrent multiplier system of the kidney? A) It creates a hyperosmolar medullary interstitial fluid that allows the kidneys to form hypertonic urine. B) The descending loop of Henle is permeable to water. C) There is active transport of sodium and chloride out of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle. D) The ascending loop of Henle is not permeable to water. E) The fraction of filtered NaCl reabsorbed from the ascending limb equals the fraction of filtered water reabsorbed from the descending limb. 21. In the condition diabetes mellitus, why does glucose appear in the urine? A) The plasma concentration of glucose becomes so high that it diffuses from peritubular capillaries into the proximal tubule, down its concentration gradient. B) The filtered load of glucose becomes greater than the tubular maximum for its reabsorption. C) Without the hormone insulin, glucose cannot enter proximal tubule epithelial cells. D) The rate of tubular secretion of glucose becomes greater than the sum of glucose filtration and reabsorption. E) Without insulin, the glomerular filtration barrier becomes extremely leaky to glucose, which is not normally filterable. 22. Which is TRUE about the hormone vasopressin (also known as antidiuretic hormone, ADH)? A) It is a peptide hormone released from the adrenal gland. B) It triggers insertion of aquaporins into the apical membranes of collecting duct cells. C) It promotes the excretion of more water in the urine. D) It stimulates the excretion of K+ in the urine. E) Its main function is to trigger the secretion of aldosterone. 23. An individual has had too many alcoholic drinks at a party. One of the effects of alcohol is that it inhibits the release of vasopressin. Which of the following is the individual likely to notice? A) A reduction in urine volume B) The excretion of glucose in the urine increased C) A high volume of dilute urine D) Very concentrated urine E) An increase in blood pressure 24. Which correctly describes renin? A) It is secreted by juxtaglomerular cells in renal afferent arterioles. B) Its secretion is enhanced by high levels of Na+ in the macula densa. C) Its secretion is stimulated by elevated blood pressure in the renal afferent arterioles. D) It acts on the adrenal cortex to stimulate aldosterone secretion. E) It is secreted by the liver in response to low blood pressure. 25. Which of the following organs is the main site of aldosterone secretion? A) Kidneys B) Adrenal glands C) Systemic and pulmonary blood vessels D) Liver E) The atria of the heart 26. You play a trick on your little brother and replace all the sugar in the sugar bowl with salt. In the morning, you find him eating a bowl full of cereal with salt on it. You realize he’s eaten quite a bit of salt! Which is likely to occur? A) Urine osmolarity would decrease. B) Firing by hypothalamic osmoreceptors would decrease. C) Secretion of atrial natriuretic factor would increase. D) Secretion of vasopressin would decrease. 27. Which stimulates vasopressin secretion? A) Increased plasma osmolarity B) Increased plasma volume C) Ingestion of alcohol D) Decreased aldosterone secretion E) Increased pressure in afferent arterioles 28. Following an intense workout, your clothes are drenched in sweat, which is 99% water. You estimate you lost at least 0.5 L of sweat. Your (similarly sized) friend skipped the workout to donate blood and you found out they donated 0.5 L of plasma. After these activities, which of you will have a greater increase in vasopressin secretion and why? A) You will have a greater vasopressin secretion because sweat is hyperosmotic to Plasma. B) You will have a greater vasopressin secretion because sweat is hypoosmotic to Plasma. C) Your friend will have a greater vasopressin secretion because sweat is hypoosmotic to plasma. D) Your friend will have a greater vasopressin secretion because sweat is isosmotic to plasma. E) Your friend will have a greater vasopressin secretion because sweat is hyperosmotic to plasma. 29. After prolonged exertion in a hot climate and heavy sweating, baroreceptors would_________ firing, leading to_________ secretion of_________ and thus_________ renal reabsorption of_________. A) increase; increased; renin; increased; Na+ B) decrease; increased; renin; decreased; Na+ C) decrease; increased; vasopressin; increased; water D) increase; decreased; vasopressin; decreased; water E) decrease; decreased; vasopressin; increased; water 30. Which of the following most accurately describes the actions of aldosterone? A) Aldosterone increases Na+ secretion and K+ reabsorption in the cortical collecting ducts. B) Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion in the proximal tubule. C) Aldosterone decreases Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion in the cortical collecting ducts. D) Aldosterone increases Na+ secretion and K+ reabsorption in the proximal tubule. E) Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion in the cortical collecting ducts. 31. Which is TRUE regarding meiosis in a single germ cell? A) It results in 4 cells with 23 chromosomes each. B) It results in 2 cells with 46 chromosomes each. C) It results in 4 cells with 46 chromosomes each. D) It results in 4 cells with 46 pairs of chromosomes each. E) It results in 4 cells with 23 pairs of chromosomes each. 32. Spermatogenesis A) begins with the mitotic division of spermatogonia. B) results in four primary spermatocytes for every spermatogonium. C) results in four spermatozoa for every primary spermatocyte. D) is not complete until after an egg is fertilized, which initiates the second meiotic division. E) takes place completely within the lumen of the seminiferous tubule. 33. The process of spermatogenesis from primary spermatocyte to sperm A) takes about three weeks in the human. B) occurs when a male is an embryo, ceasing at birth. C) requires participation of Sertoli cells. D) occurs in the epididymis. E) occurs as the cells gradually travel between two closely attached Leydig cells. 34. Jim has just been diagnosed with testicular cancer. The tumor is composed of Sertoli cells and they have begun to produce excessive amounts of inhibin. Which of the following would be TRUE? A) FSH secretion would be selectively inhibited, but LH secretion would be normal. B) Spermatogenesis would be increased but testosterone secretion would be Normal. C) Spermatogenesis would be increased because testosterone production would be above normal. D) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone levels and spermatogenesis would increase above normal. E) Both FSH and LH secretion would rise above normal levels. 35. As a result of a new medication, Jessica’s adrenal glands have increased their production of androgen. On the medication’s label, Jessica reads about the potential side effects. Which of these is likely to be included in the list of potential side effects? A) Onset of spermatogenesis in her ovaries B) Increased levels of LH secretion C) Atrophy of her skeletal muscles D) Increase of subcutaneous fat deposition E) New or increased growth of facial hair 36. Sydney had an infection 10 years ago that left scarring in her fallopian tubes. Due to this scarring, the diameter of the fallopian tubes has been reduced by 75%. What effects may Sydney experience? A) Oocytes may not reach the uterus. B) Endometrium may not mature as needed for implantation. C) During pregnancy the fetus may not mature to full size. D) The cervix may not dilate during birth. E) None of these would occur. 37. What would be the effect of cutting the fallopian tubes at their midpoints? A) Sperm would not travel from the vagina to the uterus. B) Sperm would not travel from the testes to the epididymides. C) Estrogen would not enter the bloodstream. D) Ova would not travel from the ovaries to the uterus. 38. Which is a TRUE statement about events occurring in the menstrual cycle? A) Each peak in estrogen concentration is accompanied by an even greater peak in progesterone concentration. B) FSH reaches its highest concentration 3 days before menstruation begins. C) Progesterone is low during the first half of the cycle, and rises to a peak during the second half. D) Ovulation occurs exactly in the middle of the follicular phase of the cycle. E) The corpus luteum normally degenerates on day 14 of the cycle. 39. If the amount of progesterone in the blood remained at the level seen in the middle of the luteal phase for 6 straight months, what would the effect be on menstruation? A) Menstruation would not occur. B) Menstruation would occur consistently for the entire 6 months. C) Menstruation would occur at the typical intervals, but would be heavier than Before. D) Menstruation would occur at the typical intervals, but would be lighter than Before. E) There would be no effect on menstruation. 40. In the ovarian cycle, the dominant follicle A) undergoes atresia. B) continues to grow beyond day 7 of the cycle, while the other developing follicles Degenerate. C) is selected on day 1 of the cycle, and no other follicles develop beyond that day. D) is selected to continue growing at about the middle of the luteal phase. E) ruptures during ovulation on day 21 of the cycle. 41. Which is TRUE about the maturation of ovarian follicles? A) Granulosa cells produce androgens, which stimulates follicle maturation. B) Theca cells produce estrogen, which is converted to the androgens that stimulate follicle maturation. C) On day 1 of the cycle, growing follicles have both FSH and LH receptors on granulosa cells. D) Growing follicles produce estrogen, which further stimulates follicle maturation. E) Follicle maturation is stimulated when FSH binds to theca cells and LH binds to granulosa cells. 42. Shedding of the endometrial lining occurs A) because ovulation disrupts the growing follicle. B) as a result of a fall in plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone. C) a day after the LH surge. D) because of an increase in the level of FSH. E) because the nondominant follicles undergo atresia. 43. Which is a function of LH? A) It stimulates androgen production by theca cells. B) It stimulates the growth of granulosa cells. C) It stimulates production of inhibin by theca cells. D) It stimulates estrogen production by theca cells. E) It inhibits GnRH secretion by the hypothalamus during ovulation. 44. Which of the following statements about estrogen in females is FALSE? A) In low plasma concentration, estrogen inhibits pituitary secretion of LH and FSH. B) In high plasma concentration, estrogen stimulates pituitary sensitivity to GnRH. C) In the presence of high plasma concentration of progesterone, estrogen stimulates increased secretion of GnRH. D) Estrogen secretion is required for the LH surge. E) Estrogen stimulates follicular growth. 45. On day 14 of a typical 28-day ovarian and menstrual cycle, LH concentration in the blood will be _________. The endometrium will be _________. Estrogen concentration in the blood is _________. A) level; sloughing off; low B) at or near a peak; near the end of the proliferative phase; relatively high C) low but rising; in the secretory phase; high D) at or near a peak; in the secretory phase; low E) level; starting the proliferative phase; level but high 46. During the early part of the ovarian cycle,_________ acts on granulosa cells, which_________._________ acts on theca cells, which_________. A) LH; convert androgens to estrogens; FSH; synthesize androgens B) LH; synthesize androgens; FSH; convert androgens to estrogens C) FSH; convert androgens to estrogens; LH; synthesize androgens D) FSH; synthesize androgens; LH; convert androgens to estrogens E) progesterone; synthesize androgens; LH; secrete estrogens 47. Which is TRUE during the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle? A) Both estrogen and progesterone concentrations are kept low by negative Feedback. B) Estrogen concentration remains low, while progesterone concentration rises to a Peak. C) Progesterone concentration remains low, while estrogen concentration rises to a peak. D) Progesterone concentration in the plasma is high, but estrogen concentration rises even higher. E) Estrogen concentration in the plasma is high, but progesterone concentration rises even higher. 48. The corpus luteum persists in pregnancy because the implanting blastocyst secretes A) large quantities of FSH and LH. B) GnRH, which stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete FSH and LH. C) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). D) progesterone and estrogen. E) cortisol. 49. The placenta is A) a site where maternal blood enters the fetal circulation. B) a site formed by the proliferation of the maternal endometrium and myometrium. C) a site where fetal blood can enter the maternal circulation. D) a site of diffusion and transport of wastes, oxygen, and nutrients between fetal and maternal blood. E) formed from maternal circulatory stem cells, and serves as an exchange organ between mother and fetus. 50. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) The mother and the fetus exchange nutrients by exchanging blood in the Placenta. B) Human chorionic gonadotropin maintains the corpus luteum. C) Human chorionic gonadotropin levels are the highest at the end of pregnancy. D) From the time of implantation through delivery, the corpus luteum is the major source of progesterone. E) Maternal plasma progesterone levels decline in the weeks leading up to the birth of her baby. 51. Parturition A) is the delivery of the infant and placenta. B) normally occurs between the 27th and 28th weeks of pregnancy. C) is an example of negative feedback. D) occurs within 24 to 48 hours of ovulation. E) is a pathological condition in which a pregnant woman retains too much fluid (edema), and it can lead to seizures. 52. What would be the effect of giving an agonist to the oxytocin receptor to a woman late in pregnancy? A) Onset of uterine contractions B) Inhibition of breast milk production C) Declining levels of estrogen D) Increase in maternal blood pressure E) Inhibition of cervical dilation 53. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding oxytocin? A) It is secreted by the posterior pituitary. B) It is regulated by a positive feedback loop. C) It facilitates the birth process. D) It stimulates uterine contractions. E) It stimulates synthesis of breast milk. 54. Umbilical arteries A) deliver oxygen and nutrient-rich blood from the mother to the placenta. B) deliver oxygen and nutrient-rich blood from the fetus to the placenta. C) carry blood with low oxygen and high metabolic wastes away from the fetus to the placenta. D) carry highly oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus. E) carry blood with low oxygen and high metabolic wastes from the placenta to the mother's circulation. 55. The immune system destroys or neutralizes A) bacteria. B) viruses. C) nonmicrobial foreign substances. D) cancer cells that arise in the body. E) All of the choices are correct. 56. In a patient taking a hypothetical immunosuppressive drug, all adaptive responses are inhibited. All innate immune responses are still functional, although some are reduced in strength. While taking this drug, which of the following events will still occur at full strength in response to infection? A) Antigen interaction with lymphocytes B) Production of antibodies that bind to antigens C) B-cell differentiation into plasma cells D) Vasodilation of local blood vessels E) Activation of lymphocytes 57. Chemotaxis A) refers to the chemical attraction of neutrophils to a site of inflammation. B) is important only for innate immune responses. C) is important only for adaptive immune responses. D) refers to the engulfing of microbes and foreign molecules by macrophages. E) refers to dilation of blood vessels by chemicals released by damaged tissue cells. 58. Which of the following cell types is a lymphocyte that binds to antigens on plasma membranes of target cells and directly destroys the cells? A) Neutrophils B) NK cells C) Cytotoxic T cells (CD8 cells) D) Helper T cells (CD4 cells) E) B cells 59. Which of the following statements regarding phagocytes and phagocytosis is TRUE? A) Macrophages, monocytes, and mast cells are phagocytes. B) Contact of phagocytes with microbes stimulates the phagocytes to release chemicals that mediate the inflammatory response. C) Phagocytosis is stimulated by the presence of proteins called rhodopsins. D) Phagocytosis is the process by which leukocytes exit the bloodstream. E) Phagocytosis is a process that only occurs within the bloodstream. 60. Which of the following statements regarding the lymphoid organs is NOT true? A) The primary lymphoid organs are the bone marrow and thymus. B) Large numbers of macrophages and lymphocytes are found in the lymph nodes and spleen. C) The tonsils contain lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells that respond to microbes in food. D) Once a lymphocyte reaches a secondary lymphoid organ, it remains there for its lifetime. 61. You’re working in a clinical lab and your boss has asked you to run a test on a patient’s class I MHC molecules. You need to isolate some cells from her collected tissues that express the class I proteins. Which of the following cell types would you NOT use? A) Red blood cells B) Liver cells C) Neurons D) Skeletal muscle cells E) Intestinal epithelial cells 62. Your patient has a normal helper T cell count, but very little helper T cell activity. Which of the following scenarios may explain this observation? A) She has a mutation in her MHC II proteins making them ineffective. B) She has low antibody activity. C) She has a mutation in the gene for perforin and makes an ineffective version of this molecule. D) She is HIV positive. E) None of these answers would explain the observations seen in this patient. 63. Cytotoxic T cells A) secrete perforin, which kills bacteria and viruses by perforating the membrane or coat that surrounds them. B) require class I MHC proteins to recognize foreign antigens. C) are converted to plasma cells when activated by MHC proteins. D) secrete proteins that neutralize bacterial toxins. 64. The bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis has the ability to prevent lysosomal fusion in macrophages. After phagocytosis where would this microbe be found in the macrophage? A) Autosomes B) Ribosomes C) Free in the cytoplasm D) Mitochondria E) Phagosomes 65. Lupus is a disease in which the immune system makes antibodies that target the person’s own tissues, targeting them for destruction by the immune system. Which of the following might be a useful drug therapy for lupus? A) A drug that inhibits cytotoxic T cells B) A drug that inhibits all cytokines C) A drug that inhibits B cells D) A drug that inhibits all cholesterol synthesis in the body E) A drug that inhibits phagocytosis 66. When an antigen is bound to an antibody, it binds to A) the heavy immunoglobulin chain only. B) the light immunoglobulin chain only. C) a specific antigen-binding site formed by heavy and light chains. D) a hypervariable region of immunoglobulin DNA. E) gamma immunoglobulin only. 67. B cells that differentiate during an initial immune response but remain dormant until being activated during a subsequent exposure to an antigen are called A) T cells. B) memory cells. C) macrophages. D) monocytes. E) cytokines. 68. Which is typically present in a person with type O blood? A) Erythrocytes carrying type A antigen B) Erythrocytes carrying type B antigen C) Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma D) Erythrocytes with both type A antigen and type B antigen E) Plasma that has neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies 69. Which of the following statements regarding blood-type incompatibilities between a mother and her fetus is TRUE? A) An Rh-negative fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-positive. B) An Rh-positive fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-negative. C) A fetus with type B blood may be at risk if its mother has type O blood. D) The risk to an Rh-positive fetus of an Rh-negative mother is lessened if she has previously carried an Rh-negative fetus. E) The greatest risk to a fetus occurs when both mother and fetus are Rh-positive. 70. Which of the following is NOT normally a route of transmission of HIV/AIDS? A) Unprotected sexual intercourse with an infected partner B) Kissing or contact with items contaminated by the saliva of an infected individual C) Across the placenta from an infected mother to her fetus during pregnancy or Delivery D) Via breast milk during lactation E) Transfer of contaminated blood or blood products from one person to another Answer Key 1. B 43. A 2. A 44. C 3. E 45. B 4. D 46. C 5. B 47. E 6. E 48. C 7. E 49. D 8. C 50. B 9. E 51. A 10. A 52. A 11. E 53. E 12. A 54. C 13. B 55. E 14. C 56. D 15. C 57. A 16. A 58. C 17. C 59. B 18. A 60. D 19. E 61. A 20. E 62. A 21. B 63. B 22. B 64. E 23. C 65. C 24. A 66. C 25. B 67. B 26. A 68. C 27. B 69. B 28. B 70. B 29. C 30. E 31. A 32. C 33. C 34. A 35. E 36. A 37. D 38. C 39. A 40. B 41. D 42. B