CompTIA-PK0-005 3_unlocked.pdf

CompTIA PK0-005 CompTIA Project+ Certification (2024) Version: 6.4 [ Total Questio...

CompTIA PK0-005 CompTIA Project+ Certification (2024) Version: 6.4 [ Total Questions: 239] Web: www.marks4sure.com Email: [email protected] IMPORTANT NOTICE Feedback We have developed quality product and state-of-art service to ensure our customers interest. If you have any suggestions, please feel free to contact us at [email protected] Support If you have any questions about our product, please provide the following items: exam code screenshot of the question login id/email please contact us at [email protected] and our technical experts will provide support within 24 hours. Copyright The product of each order has its own encryption code, so you should use it independently. Any unauthorized changes will inflict legal punishment. We reserve the right of final explanation for this statement. Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 Question #:1 Which of the following cloud models is designed to provide compute, storage, and networking resources on demand? A. Software as a service B. Infrastructure as a service C. Data as a service D. Platform as a service Answer: B Explanation Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is a cloud model that provides on-demand access to cloud-hosted physical and virtual servers, storage, and networking resources. IaaS customers can provision, configure, and use these resources as they would use on-premises hardware, but without the hassle of purchasing, installing, managing, and maintaining them. The cloud service provider owns, manages, and maintains the hardware and computing resources in its own data centers, and charges the customers based on their usage. IaaS is suitable for customers who need flexibility, scalability, and control over their IT infrastructure, and who want to avoid the high costs and complexity of owning and operating their own hardware. The other options are not correct because: Software as a service (SaaS) is a cloud model that provides on-demand access to ready-to-use, cloud-hosted application software. SaaS customers do not need to install, update, or maintain the software, as the cloud service provider handles all the technical aspects. SaaS is suitable for customers who need to access common applications, such as email, office productivity, or customer relationship management, without worrying about the underlying infrastructure or platform. Data as a service (DaaS) is a cloud model that provides on-demand access to cloud-hosted data sources, such as databases, data warehouses, or data lakes. DaaS customers can query, analyze, and visualize the data, as well as integrate it with other applications or services, using APIs or web interfaces. DaaS is suitable for customers who need to leverage data from various sources, such as social media, IoT devices, or third-party providers, without having to store, manage, or process the data themselves. Platform as a service (PaaS) is a cloud model that provides on-demand access to a complete, ready-to-use, cloud-hosted platform for developing, running, maintaining, and managing applications. PaaS customers can use the platform’s tools, frameworks, libraries, and services to create and deploy applications, without having to worry about the underlying infrastructure or software. PaaS is suitable for customers who need to develop, test, and deploy applications quickly and efficiently, and who want to take advantage of the cloud’s scalability, reliability, and security features. References = IaaS vs. PaaS vs. SaaS; AWS Fundamentals: Understanding Compute, Storage, Database, Networking & Security; What are the different types of cloud computing?; What is Cloud Storage and How to Use It Question #:2 Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 1 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 During the execution phase, a new PM was assigned to a project. The PM received a request to add new functionality to the system that is being developed. While the PM was conducting a preliminary review with the team, the technical lead highlighted that this functionality request was rejected during the planning phase. Which of the following documents is the best source for the PM to use to confirm this assertion? A. Issue log B. Scope statement C. Risk report D. Change log Answer: D Explanation A change log is a document that records and tracks the changes that are made to the project scope, schedule, budget, or quality. It helps the project manager to monitor and control the project performance and ensure that the changes are aligned with the project objectives and stakeholders’ expectations. A change log can also include information such as the change description, impact, status, approval, and date. A change log is the best source for the PM to use to confirm the assertion that the functionality request was rejected during the planning phase, as it would show the details and reasons for the rejection12. Question #:3 A stakeholder works in a remote location and has not been replying to emails. The Internet service in that location is intermittent, and the stakeholder prefers to be contacted by telephone. Which of the following artifacts should the project manager have prepared to avoid this situation? A. Responsibility assignment matrix B. Acceptable communication channels C. Risk registry D. Staff directory Answer: B Explanation The project manager should have prepared acceptable communication channels to avoid the situation of a stakeholder not replying to emails due to intermittent Internet service. Acceptable communication channels are methods or modes of communication that are agreed upon by all parties involved in a project. They may include aspects such as email, phone call, text message, video conference, instant message, or face-to-face meeting. Acceptable communication channels can help to ensure that messages are delivered and received effectively and efficiently and that communication preferences and limitations are respected. Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 2 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 Question #:4 A project sponsor asked the PM to provide a summary of the current financial status. The PM uses the following burn up chart for the analysis: Based on the chart, which of the following is the current status of the project? A. Behind schedule and over budget B. Behind schedule and under budget C. Ahead of schedule and over budget D. Ahead of schedule and under budget Answer: A Explanation The project manager can use the burn up chart to analyze the current status of the project based on its scope (value delivered), budget (cost), and schedule (time). A burn up chart is a graphical tool that shows how much work has been completed (burned up) versus how much work remains (scope) over time. It also shows how much budget has been spent (burned up) versus how much budget remains (budget) over time. A burn up chart Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 3 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 can help to monitor and control the project progress and performance and identify any variances or deviations from the plan. The chart given shows that both scope and budget lines are above their respective target lines at any given time point. This means that less work has been completed than planned (scope variance) and more money has been spent than planned (budget variance) at any given time point. Therefore, the project is behind schedule and over budget. Question #:5 A project manager reports that the implementation of a new system is on track to be completed under budget and ahead of the schedule. A stakeholder then asks the manager to add mobile device functionality. Which of the following should the project manager do in response to the request? A. Decline because it is not included in the project scope. B. Assess the impact of the request and create a change request C. Create new functional and non-functional requirements for mobile devices. D. Revise the baseline of the project plan by adding the new requirements. Answer: B Explanation Assess the impact of the request and create a change request. The project manager should assess the impact of the request and create a change request in response to the stakeholder asking to add mobile device functionality to a project that is on track to be completed under budget and ahead of schedule. A change request is a document that formally proposes and records a modification or addition to some aspect of a project, such as scope, schedule, cost, quality, or resources. A change request can help to communicate and justify the need and rationale for the change and its implications on the project objectives and deliverables. A change request also helps to initiate the change control process, which involves reviewing, approving, implementing, and monitoring the change12 Question #:6 Two team members have a minor disagreement on how a task should be performed. The project manager plans to meet with the team members to discuss the matter. Which of the following techniques should the project manager use to emphasize the areas of agreement and downplay the opposing views? A. Compromising B. Forcing C. Smoothing D. Collaborating Answer: C Explanation Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 4 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 This is a technique that involves acknowledging both sides of an argument, finding common ground, and suggesting a compromise that satisfies both parties. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide1, Chapter 12: Conflict Resolution Techniques According to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide1, conflict resolution is the process of managing and resolving disagreements or disputes among project team members or stakeholders. Conflict resolution techniques are the methods or strategies that the project manager can use to facilitate constructive communication and collaboration among the parties involved in a conflict situation. Question #:7 A project manager is eager to define access requirements during the initiation phase of a project. Which of the following steps should the project manager perform first? A. Define the WBS. B. Develop a RAM. C. Manage the vendors. D. Assess the resource pool. Answer: D Explanation This answer is based on the best practice of defining access requirements in project management, which is to identify the roles, responsibilities, and permissions of the project team members and other stakeholders who need to access the project information, resources, and deliverables12. The first step in this process is to assess the resource pool, which is the availability and capability of the human resources that can be assigned to the project34. By assessing the resource pool, the project manager can determine the skills, experience, and security clearance of the potential project team members, as well as their reporting relationships, communication preferences, and expectations56. This information can help the project manager to define the access requirements for each role and stakeholder group, and to assign the appropriate level of access to the project data, documents, tools, and systems78. References = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide9, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives10, What is Requirements Management?, How to Write Project Requirements, A Guide to Functional Requirements, Project Requirements Management: A Quick Guide, Creating clear project requirements, How to Define Project Roles and Responsibilities Question #:8 Due to budgetary and time constraints, a PM scheduled a meeting with all stakeholders during the planning phase to review the requirements and come to an agreement on the minimum viable product that would be acceptable. Which of the following would be used to document this input? A. Project change management plan B. Project management plan C. Project transition plan Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 5 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 D. Project communication plan Answer: B Explanation The project manager should use the project management plan to document the input from the stakeholders on the minimum viable product that would be acceptable for the project. The project management plan is a document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored, controlled, and closed. It usually includes information such as scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), schedule baseline, cost baseline, quality plan, risk plan, communication plan, stakeholder plan, and change management plan. The project management plan can help to define and communicate the project requirements, deliverables, assumptions, constraints, and expectations to all stakeholders involved in the project. The project management plan would be used to document the input obtained from stakeholders during the meeting to review the requirements and agree on the minimum viable product. The project management plan is a comprehensive document that outlines the approach, scope, schedule, budget, quality, resources, and communication for a project. The document is updated throughout the project lifecycle and serves as a guide for project execution, monitoring, and control. References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, Chapter 3: Project Integration Management, Objective 3.3: Identify the components of the project management plan. Question #:9 During a quality analysis review, the causes of several issues have been highlighted. Which of the following should the project manager use to identify the MOST important causes? A. Ishikawa diagram B. Scatter diagram C. Pareto chart D. Decision tree Answer: C Explanation The Pareto chart should be used to identify the most important causes of issues during a quality analysis review. The Pareto chart is a graphical representation of the frequency and impact of different causes, helping to identify the most common and impactful causes. References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.3.3 Question #:10 A team is working on a project that has different stages, such as initiation, planning, execution, and closure. Which of the following is this an example of? A. Agile B. Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 6 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 B. Waterfall C. Standard D. Hybrid Answer: B Explanation The waterfall methodology is a project management framework that follows a linear and sequential process, where each stage of the project must be completed before moving on to the next one. The stages of the waterfall model are initiation, planning, execution, and closure, as described in the question12. Question #:11 A company is implementing a new radar system from July to September. The project manager knows these months are the peak hurricane season for this region. Which of the following should the project manager develop to mitigate the risk to the project? A. Data plan B. Contingency plan C. Rollback plan D. Recovery plan Answer: B Explanation A contingency plan is a risk mitigation strategy that involves preparing alternative courses of action in case the original plan fails or encounters unexpected problems. A contingency plan can help reduce the impact of negative risks and ensure the project continuity and success. In this case, the project manager should develop a contingency plan to mitigate the risk of hurricanes affecting the implementation of the new radar system. For example, the contingency plan could include backup resources, alternative locations, emergency procedures, and communication channels in case of a hurricane. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 7: Risk Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 7: Risk Management Question #:12 Following a successful release, a project manager sent a survey to all stakeholders to gain an understanding of opportunity areas for the team. Which of the following can use the survey results as an input? A. Daily stand-up B. Project momentum Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 7 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 C. Performance feedback D. Meeting minutes Answer: C Explanation The project manager can use the survey results as an input for performance feedback for the project team members. Performance feedback is a process of providing constructive and timely information on the performance of individuals or teams in relation to project goals and expectations. Performance feedback can help to motivate, improve, and recognize project team members345 The survey results can be used as an input for performance feedback. Performance feedback involves analyzing and evaluating the performance of the project team and project management against the project plan, including identifying areas for improvement. The survey results can help identify these areas for improvement and provide feedback to the project team on their performance. References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 4.1.1 Question #:13 During a brainstorming session, a project team is elaborating on what caused the unexpected crash of the website that the team was developing. Given the following: Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 8 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 Which of the following was the initial cause of the issue? A. Inadequate memory B. Incorrect configuration C. Lack of infrastructure D. Inadequate instructions Answer: B Explanation Incorrect configuration was the initial cause of the issue that caused the unexpected crash of the website that the team was developing. The diagram given is an example of a fishbone diagram or a cause-and-effect diagram that shows the possible causes of a problem or effect. The diagram has four main categories: people, process, technology, and environment. Each category has subcategories that list specific factors that may contribute to the problem or effect. The diagram shows that incorrect configuration under technology was marked as an initial cause of website crash. Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 9 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 Question #:14 Which of the following best describes a manufacturer's obligation to repair or change, without extra costs, any part of a product that is not functioning? A. Service-level agreement B. Functional testing C. Warranty period D. Audit Answer: C Explanation A warranty period is the time during which a manufacturer or seller agrees to repair or replace a product that is defective or does not meet the specified standards. A warranty period can be expressed in terms of duration (e.g., one year) or usage (e.g., 10,000 miles). A warranty period is a form of consumer protection that obliges the manufacturer or seller to bear the costs of repairing or changing any part of the product that is not functioning properly1. Question #:15 A project manager receives an escalation from an external group reporting that an expected deliverable should have been available some time ago. After analysis, the project team realizes the deliverable was provided on time. Which of the following should the project manager do next? A. Request a change control ticket. B. Review the schedule plan. C. Refine the project documentation. D. Revise the communication plan. Answer: D Explanation When a project manager receives an escalation about a deliverable that was actually provided on time, it indicates a communication issue. The next step should be to revise the communication plan to ensure that all stakeholders are properly informed about project progress and deliverables in the future. This helps to prevent misunderstandings and ensures that everyone has the correct information. References = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide (PK0-005) Question #:16 Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 10 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 A PM learns about some communication issues with different stakeholders and team members. Which of the following should the PM do NEXT? A. Escalate the communication issues. B. Implement a communication platform. C. Review the communication plan. D. Talk with the head of the PMO. Answer: C Explanation The project manager should review the communication plan after learning about some communication issues with different stakeholders and team members. A communication plan is a document that defines and documents the communication goals, strategies, methods, channels, frequency, roles, and responsibilities for a project. A communication plan can help to facilitate effective and timely communication among all stakeholders involved in a project and avoid confusion, misunderstanding, or conflicts. Question #:17 A global franchise requests that a company provide a solution to unify its operation worldwide. Additionally, the company would like the solution to provide operation reports in real time without asking the country franchise manager for these reports. Which of the following cloud models would the company suggest to the global franchise? A. laaS B. XaaS C. PaaS D. SaaS Answer: D Explanation SaaS, or Software as a Service, is a type of cloud computing that provides ready-to-use software applications over the internet. The software is hosted and managed by the service provider, and the users do not have to install, update, or maintain it. SaaS is suitable for the global franchise because it can provide a unified solution that can be accessed from anywhere, anytime, and on any device. SaaS can also provide real-time operation reports without requiring the intervention of the country franchise managers. SaaS can offer benefits such as scalability, flexibility, cost-effectiveness, and security for the global franchise123. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Project Communications, p. 143; Types of Cloud Computing - SaaS vs PaaS vs IaaS - AWS; What are the different types of cloud computing? | Google Cloud; IaaS vs. PaaS vs. SaaS | IBM Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 11 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 Question #:18 In order to complete a major project deliverable, very specialized resources are required for some tasks. The PM failed to take into consideration during planning that the required resources would be available for fewer hours than required. Which of the following should the PM do first to make schedule changes? A. Add a new risk. B. Perform an impact analysis. C. Escalate to the sponsor. D. Raise a change request. Answer: B Explanation According to A Guide To Schedule Updating in Project Management, one of the best practices for effective schedule updating is to perform an impact analysis before making any changes to the schedule. An impact analysis helps the project manager to assess the effects of the change on the project scope, cost, quality, risk, and stakeholder expectations. It also helps to identify the best options for resolving the issue and minimizing the negative impacts. By performing an impact analysis first, the project manager can make informed decisions and communicate them clearly to the project team and stakeholders. Question #:19 Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for establishing metrics that measure the effectiveness of an information security program? A. Residual risk B. Regulatory requirements C. Risk tolerance D. Control objectives Answer: D Explanation Control objectives are the desired outcomes or goals of implementing security controls to mitigate risks and protect information assets. Control objectives should be the primary basis for establishing metrics that measure the effectiveness of an information security program, as they align with the business objectives, requirements, and expectations of the organization and its stakeholders. Metrics based on control objectives can help to evaluate the performance, efficiency, and maturity of the security program, and to identify gaps, issues, and areas for improvement. The other options are not correct because: Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 12 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 Residual risk is the remaining risk after applying security controls. Residual risk is not a basis for establishing metrics, but rather a result of measuring the effectiveness of security controls. Residual risk should be monitored and reported, but it does not define the desired outcomes or goals of the security program. Regulatory requirements are the external standards, laws, and regulations that the organization must comply with to avoid legal or financial penalties. Regulatory requirements are not a basis for establishing metrics, but rather a constraint or a driver for the security program. Metrics based on regulatory requirements can help to demonstrate compliance, but they may not reflect the actual effectiveness or efficiency of the security program. Risk tolerance is the level of risk that the organization is willing to accept or bear. Risk tolerance is not a basis for establishing metrics, but rather a factor or an input for the security program. Metrics based on risk tolerance can help to prioritize and allocate resources, but they may not measure the actual outcomes or goals of the security program. References = Key Performance Indicators for Security Governance, Part 1; 14 Cybersecurity Metrics + KPIs You Must Track in 2023; KPIs in Information Security: The 10 Most Important Security Metrics; Why metrics are crucial to proving cybersecurity programs’ value; Implementing and Maintaining Security Program Metrics Question #:20 A project manager has decided to outsource portions of a project and will conduct a separate procurement. In which of the following phases does this task occur? A. Planning B. Initiating C. Controlling D. Executing Answer: A Explanation This answer is based on the understanding that outsourcing is a form of procurement, which is one of the knowledge areas in project management. Procurement involves acquiring goods and services from external sources to support the project objectives. According to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide1, procurement activities occur mainly in the planning phase of the project, where the project manager identifies the project needs, defines the scope of work, evaluates the potential vendors, and prepares the procurement documents. The other options are not correct because: Initiating is the phase where the project manager defines the project purpose, objectives, and deliverables, and obtains the project charter and stakeholder approval. Initiating does not involve procurement activities, although it may involve some preliminary research on the feasibility and availability of external resources. Controlling is the phase where the project manager monitors and measures the project performance, compares it with the baseline, and implements corrective actions if needed. Controlling does involve Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 13 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 some procurement activities, such as reviewing the vendor deliverables, managing the changes, and resolving the issues, but these are not the main tasks of procurement. Executing is the phase where the project manager leads and directs the project team and other resources to complete the project work according to the plan. Executing does involve some procurement activities, such as selecting the vendor, signing the contract, and managing the relationship, but these are not the main tasks of procurement. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Planning Projects, Part 4 (Procurement and Communication), pages 243-260; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Project Planning, Objective 2.5: Given a scenario, plan procurement for a project. Question #:21 A project team is developing an application that will allocate a building's parking spaces. The building owner does not agree with using corporate colors in the application and has blocked the release of the beta version for testing. Which of the following best describes what the project manager should have done in the initiation phase to prevent this issue? A. Review of existing artifacts B. Development of an issue log C. Identification and assessment of stakeholders D. Establishment of accepted communication channels Answer: C Explanation The project manager should have identified and assessed the building owner as a key stakeholder in the initiation phase, and understood their expectations and requirements for the application. This would have helped to avoid the conflict over the corporate colors and the delay in testing. Stakeholder identification and assessment is an important process in the initiation phase, as it helps to define the project scope, objectives, and success criteria, and to establish a communication plan12. References = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Question #:22 Which of the following is a reason to use a SOW on a project? A. To find out the contact information for the vendors B. To review the list of stakeholders C. To ensure the team stays within the scope of the contract D. To give explicit instruction on how to execute the work Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 14 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 Answer: C Explanation A statement of work (SOW) is a formal document that defines the entire scope of work involved for a vendor and clarifies deliverables, costs, and timeline1. It serves as a contractual agreement between a vendor and a client, providing a comprehensive description of the work to be performed2. A reason to use a SOW on a project is to ensure the team stays within the scope of the contract, as it outlines what the team will and won’t do on a project, saving from painful client negotiations and protecting the timeline and the bottom line3. References = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Initiating Projects Part 1, page 63; What Is a Statement of Work? Definition & Examples, Introduction and What Is a Statement of Work (SOW) In Project Management? sections; Statement Of Work Ultimate Guide: Simple Definition & Template, Introduction and What is a Statement of Work? sections; What Is a Statement of Work (SOW)? - Coursera, Introduction section. Question #:23 Which of the following items must be protected as Pll? (Select TWO). A. Job title B. Home address C. Work phone number D. Time zone E. Date of birth F. Blood type Answer: B E Explanation Home address and date of birth must be protected as personally identifiable information (PII). PII is any information that can be used to identify, contact, or locate an individual person, either alone or in combination with other sources. PII can include information such as name, email address, phone number, social security number, passport number, driver’s license number, bank account number, credit card number, biometric data, medical records, etc. PII must be protected from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction to prevent identity theft, fraud, or other malicious activities that may harm the individual’s privacy or security. Question #:24 Which of the following are primary features provided by a standard laaS solution? (Select two). A. Encryption B. Storage Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 15 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 C. Networking D. User interface E. Access F. Database Answer: B C Explanation According to What is Logging as a Service (LaaS)? - LogicMonitor, LaaS is a cloud-based log management platform that simplifies the management of infrastructure and application logs. LaaS offers a central location where you can store, analyze and visualize the content of all your logs. It works by ingesting logs from different sources, such as web servers, IoT devices, database servers and more. It then provides actionable output by organizing and restructuring the information within these logs. Therefore, storage and networking are primary features provided by a standard LaaS solution, as they enable the collection and transmission of logs from various sources to a centralized platform. Encryption, user interface, access, and database are not primary features of LaaS, as they are either optional or secondary aspects of the service. Question #:25 Defects associated with project deliverables have been reported. The project team needs to find the cause of the defects. Which of the following tools should the project team use to find the cause? A. Kanban board B. Pareto chart C. Ishikawa diagram D. Decision tree Answer: C Explanation An Ishikawa diagram is a tool that the project team should use to find the cause of the defects associated with project deliverables. An Ishikawa diagram, also known as a fishbone diagram or a cause-and-effect diagram, is a graphical tool that shows the possible causes of a problem or effect using a fishbone-like structure. An Ishikawa diagram can help to identify and analyze the root causes of defects or issues and find solutions to prevent or eliminate them. Question #:26 Which of the following best represents the project impact to a company's brand value? A. Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 16 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 A. The project is compliant with local and state laws and becomes the standard for new projects. B. The project promotes new initiatives to expand its benefit to other communities. C. The project exceeds the sales quota for the third quarter and raises the bar for next periods. The project meets the expected milestones and finishes on time and within budget. Answer: B Explanation the brand of a project should deliver the message about its value and goals, and a proper brand helps the project get the necessary support and increases loyalty. The project that promotes new initiatives to expand its benefit to other communities is the one that best represents the project impact to a company’s brand value, as it shows the company’s vision, cause, and reputation. Question #:27 Project stakeholders have asked the team to use Scrum to run a software implementation project. Which of the following is most likely to take place during a Scrum ceremony? A. Reviewing project blockers B. Defining roles and responsibilities C. Establishing a project schedule D. Determining a project budget Answer: A Explanation According to Four agile ceremonies, demystified, one of the Scrum ceremonies is the daily stand-up, which is a short meeting to discuss progress and identify blockers. Blockers are any issues or impediments that prevent the team from completing their tasks or achieving their goals. Reviewing project blockers during the daily stand-up helps the team to resolve them quickly, collaborate effectively, and stay on track1. The other options are not likely to take place during a Scrum ceremony, as they are either part of the initial project planning or outside the scope of Scrum. Question #:28 Which of the following would be best to utilize when managing communications for project teams across multiple time zones? A. Business collaboration tool B. Email Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 17 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 C. Virtual meetings D. Enterprise CMS Answer: A Explanation A business collaboration tool is a software that enables teams to communicate, share, and create together online. A business collaboration tool can help project teams across multiple time zones to overcome the challenges of distance, time differences, and cultural diversity. A business collaboration tool can provide features such as instant messaging, video conferencing, file sharing, document editing, project management, and more. A business collaboration tool can also integrate with other applications and platforms that the project team uses. A business collaboration tool can improve the efficiency, productivity, and quality of the project team’s work12. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Project Communications, p. 137; The 15 best collaboration tools for productive teams - Workable; 17 Best Business Collaboration Tools for Teams - Venngage Question #:29 One of the key steps in controlling changes lo software is obtaining approval. Which of the following statements best describes the reason for this key objective? A. To send the appropriate customer notifications B. To avoid a negative impact on other software functionalities C. To ensure adequate resources are in place to implement the change D. To confirm that the software is a business priority Answer: B Explanation Obtaining approval for changes to software is crucial to ensure that the changes do not negatively impact other functionalities of the software. Approval processes typically involve a review that assesses the potential impacts of the change, which helps in mitigating risks associated with the change. References = The answer is based on standard project management practices and the typical use of change control processes in software development. For detailed information, please refer to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide and other official CompTIA resources. Question #:30 The quarterly financial report displays losses from a project even though the project was completed successfully several weeks ago. Which of the following actions should the project manager perform next? A. Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 18 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 A. Remove access. B. Complete the project sign-off. C. Release the resources. D. Outline the lessons learned. Answer: B Explanation The project sign-off is the formal acceptance of the project deliverables by the client, stakeholder, or customer. It also marks the closure of the project and the release of the final payment. If the project sign-off is not completed, the project may still incur costs and liabilities, which can explain the losses in the financial report. Therefore, the project manager should complete the project sign-off as soon as possible to avoid further losses12. Question #:31 For an upcoming project kickoff. a PM is looking for a way to illustrate roles for major project activities. Which of the following would be the MOST useful option? A. Resource plan B. Organizational chart C. Project charter D. RACI chart Answer: D Explanation A RACI chart would be the most useful option for the project manager to illustrate roles for major project activities for an upcoming project kickoff. A RACI chart is a visual representation of a RACI matrix that shows who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed for each task or activity in a project using a table format. A RACI chart can help to communicate and document the roles and expectations of each team member and stakeholder for the project and ensure alignment and agreement. Question #:32 How does data discovery assist with data classification'? A. It shows where specific data is stored B. It automatically classifies data by keywords C. Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 19 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 C. It helps to identify the data owner D. It provides assurance of data integrity Answer: A Explanation Data discovery is the process of finding and analyzing data across an organization’s data sources, such as databases, files, cloud services, and applications12. Data discovery can assist with data classification, which is the process of assigning labels and categories to data based on its sensitivity, value, and risk34. By showing where specific data is stored, data discovery can help to: Identify the location and scope of sensitive data, such as personal, financial, or health information, that may require special protection or compliance measures56. Evaluate the data quality, accuracy, and relevance for different purposes and users78. Optimize the data storage, access, and governance policies and practices910. References = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, What is Data Discovery and Classification?1, Data Discovery and Classification: Working Hand in Hand2, Why Data Discovery and Classification are Important3, Data Discovery & Classification4, Data Discovery and Classification: The First Step to Data Security5, Data Discovery and Classification: A Key Component of Data Protection6, Data Discovery and Classification: The Foundation of Data Quality7, Data Discovery and Classification: The Key to Data Governance8, Data Discovery and Classification: The Essential Step to Data Optimization9, Data Discovery and Classification: The Best Practice for Data Management10 Question #:33 Which of the following BEST illustrates how team members with different roles should interact on the team? A. SOW B. WBS C. RACI D. PERT Answer: C Explanation RACI is a tool that best illustrates how team members with different roles should interact on the team. RACI is an acronym that stands for responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed. RACI is a type of responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) that defines and clarifies the roles and responsibilities of each team member for each task or activity in a project. RACI can help to improve communication, collaboration, and accountability among team members and avoid confusion, duplication, or conflicts3 Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 20 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 Question #:34 Which of the following is a capital expense? A. Building lease B. Building purchase C. Building maintenance D. Building insurance Answer: B Explanation A capital expense is the cost of acquiring or making improvements to fixed assets that have a useful life of more than one year1. A building purchase is an example of a capital expense, as it is a long-term investment that increases the value of the company’s assets2. Building lease, maintenance, and insurance are not capital expenses, as they are recurring or short-term costs that do not increase the value of the company’s assets3. Question #:35 To gather requirements from stakeholders, the project manager sits down with them and allows them to discuss freely. Which a following technique is the project manager utilizing? A. Process moving B. Brainstorming C. Interview D. Focus group Answer: D Explanation A focus group is a technique that involves bringing together a group of stakeholders and facilitating a discussion to elicit their opinions, needs, and expectations about the project. This technique can help to gather requirements from stakeholders in an interactive and collaborative way1, p. 67 Question #:36 A project manager buys an extended warranty for a set of servers. Which of the following risk management strategies is the manager using? A. Transfer Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 21 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 B. Avoid C. Accept D. Mitigate Answer: A Explanation Transfer is a risk management strategy that involves shifting the responsibility or impact of a risk to a third party, such as an insurance company, a vendor, or a contractor1. By buying an extended warranty for a set of servers, the project manager is transferring the risk of server failure or malfunction to the warranty provider, who will cover the cost of repair or replacement in case of a risk event. This way, the project manager reduces the exposure and liability of the project to the risk, while still retaining some level of accountability and oversight2. References = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 8: Planning Projects Part 4, page 245; 4 Risk Management Strategies for Successful Project Execution, Risk transferring section; How to Manage Project Risk: A 5-Step Guide, Risk treatment section. Question #:37 An opportunity emerged in the middle of a project life cycle. Which of the following is the BEST action for the project manager to take? A. Exploit the risk. B. Accept the risk. C. Avoid the risk. D. Transfer the risk. Answer: A Explanation The project manager should exploit the risk after an opportunity emerged in the middle of a project life cycle. Exploit is a risk response strategy that aims to increase the probability and/or impact of a positive risk or opportunity. Exploit can involve actions such as allocating more resources, changing the scope or schedule, or adding more features or benefits to the project deliverables. Exploit can help to ensure that the opportunity is realized and that the project gains more value or advantage from it3 Question #:38 Two team members have a minor disagreement on how a task should be performed. The project manager plans to meet with the team members to discuss the matter. Which of the following techniques should the project manager use to emphasize the areas of agreement and downplay the opposing views? A. Compromising B. Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 22 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 B. Forcing C. Smoothing D. Collaborating Answer: C Explanation Smoothing is a conflict resolution technique that involves minimizing or ignoring the differences between the parties and focusing on the common interests or goals1. It is often used when the conflict is not very important or when there is a need to maintain harmony and relationships2. By using smoothing, the project manager can reduce the tension and stress caused by the disagreement and encourage the team members to cooperate and work together. Smoothing is different from compromising, which involves finding a middle ground or a trade-off that partially satisfies both parties; forcing, which involves imposing one’s own solution or decision on the other party; and collaborating, which involves finding a win-win solution that fully satisfies both parties3. References = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 10: Executing Projects Part 1, page 297; A Quick Guide to Resource Smoothing: Definition, Benefits, and Process, Conflict Resolution Techniques section; Resource Smoothing: How To Use In Project Management | Hive, Smoothing section. Question #:39 A financial manager reports that several employees' allocations from the past month appear to be 200% even though they are only assigned to a particular project. Which of the following could MOST likely be the cause of this issue? A. A project manager assigned the wrong resources. B. A project manager did not release the resources C. A project manager did not remove the system access. D. A project manager did not provide the project sign-off. Answer: B Explanation A project manager did not release the resources. A project manager not releasing the resources could most likely be the cause of this issue where several employees’ allocations from the past month appear to be 200% even though they are only assigned to a particular project. Releasing resources is a process of freeing up or reallocating any human or material resources that were used for a project after its completion or closure. Releasing resources can help to update the resource availability and utilization records and avoid any conflicts or errors in resource allocation or reporting. Question #:40 Which of the following is the best example of a breach of physical security? Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 23 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 A. System user IDs being used by multiple individuals B. Printers that do not request user authentication C. Developers having full access to both development and production environments D. Project documentation that is only kept on a removable device Answer: D Explanation A breach of physical security is an unauthorized access or damage to physical assets, such as equipment, data, or personnel. Project documentation that is only kept on a removable device is the best example of a breach of physical security, because it exposes sensitive information to theft, loss, or corruption. If the removable device is not encrypted or protected, anyone who obtains it can access the project documentation and compromise the project integrity, confidentiality, or availability. Therefore, project documentation should be stored in a secure location, backed up regularly, and protected by access controls and encryption. The other options are not examples of physical security breaches, but rather logical or administrative security breaches. System user IDs being used by multiple individuals is a violation of the principle of least privilege and accountability, which could lead to unauthorized access or misuse of system resources. Printers that do not request user authentication is a lack of proper access control, which could allow unauthorized printing or retrieval of confidential documents. Developers having full access to both development and production environments is a violation of the principle of separation of duties and environments, which could introduce errors, conflicts, or malicious code into the production system. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Security Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Security Management2; Types of Security Breaches: Physical and Digital3 Question #:41 While developing a project charter, a PM discovers that some of the legal requirements have not been addressed during the project concept preparation, which could result in significant financial penalties against the organization. The PM knows that implementation of appropriate changes is costly and will exceed the budget and scope of the project. Which of the following should the PM do FIRST? A. Escalate the finding to the change control board. B. Add a risk to the risk register for validation. C. Consult the RACI matrix to identify ownership of the risk. D. Have a meeting with the project sponsor and main stakeholders. Answer: D Explanation The project manager should have a meeting with the project sponsor and main stakeholders first after Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 24 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 discovering that some of the legal requirements have not been addressed during the project concept preparation. The project sponsor and main stakeholders are the key decision-makers and influencers of the project. They have the authority and responsibility to approve or reject any changes to the project scope, budget, or schedule. Having a meeting with them can help to communicate the issue, assess the impact, explore alternatives, and seek guidance on how to proceed with the project34 Question #:42 A company needs to have structured cabling installed in one of its buildings. Which of the following would be the best document for the company to use to obtain and compare information on cabling services and costs from various vendors? A. RFB B. RFQ C. RFI D. RFP Answer: D Explanation A request for proposal (RFP) is the best document for the company to use in this scenario, because it is the most detailed and personalized type of request document. An RFP allows the company to specify the project scope, requirements, deliverables, evaluation criteria, and budget for the structured cabling installation, and to solicit proposals from various vendors that can meet those needs. An RFP also enables the company to compare the vendors based on their qualifications, experience, methodology, and pricing, and to select the best one for the project. An RFP is more suitable than an RFB, RFQ, or RFI, because those documents are less comprehensive and more generic, and they do not provide enough information for the company to make an informed decision. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, Third Edition, Chapter 5: Initiating the Project, page 1131; RFI, RFP, RFQ: Understanding the Differences2; Data Center Structured Cabling RFP Template3 Question #:43 Which of the following is the main reason for documenting artifacts? A. To provide a record of the project's progress and achievements for future reference B. To show stakeholders that the project is on track and progressing as planned C. To help team members be aware of roles and responsibilities D. To ensure that the project team understands the importance of the project to the organization Answer: A Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 25 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 Explanation Documenting artifacts is the main reason for creating and maintaining project documents that relate to the management of the project, not the project deliverables. Artifacts are used to define, support, and align the project work to the project requirements and business goals. They also serve as a source of information and evidence for future projects, audits, reviews, and lessons learned1. Documenting artifacts helps to capture the project’s history, performance, outcomes, and best practices, which can be useful for organizational learning and improvement2. References = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 14: Closing the Project, page 403; Project Artifacts and How to Use Them - Rebel’s Guide to Project Management, Introduction and What are project artifacts in project management? sections; Project Management Artifacts: Definition, Types, and Phases, Introduction and What are project artifacts in project management? sections. Question #:44 A project manager prefers to have immediate contact with team members because it allows for faster response times and more interactive discussions. Which of the following communication methods should the project manager use? A. Synchronous B. Informal C. Asynchronous D. Formal Answer: A Explanation The project manager should use synchronous communication methods if they prefer to have immediate contact with team members. Synchronous communication is a type of communication that occurs in real time and allows for faster response times and more interactive discussions. Examples of synchronous communication methods include phone calls, video conferences, instant messaging, and face-to-face meetings. Synchronous communication can help to build rapport, clarify doubts, and resolve issues quickly among team members. Synchronous communication should be used when the project manager prefers to have immediate contact with team members. Synchronous communication allows for real-time interaction and feedback, enabling faster response times and more interactive discussions. References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.1.3 Question #:45 As a part of a project, structured cabling activities have been outsourced to another company. The agreement is that work will take six weeks to complete and will be performed at different locations. Which of the following should the project manager do? (Select two). A. Purchase the materials. B. Assign the resources. Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 26 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 C. Accept delays in the work. D. Approve the deliverables. E. Monitor the performance. F. Negotiate with the vendors. Answer: D E Explanation The project manager should approve the deliverables and monitor the performance of the outsourced structured cabling activities. These are the responsibilities of the project manager when dealing with external vendors or contractors, as they ensure that the quality standards, scope, schedule, and budget are met according to the contract terms and the project plan. The project manager should also communicate regularly with the vendor and provide feedback and guidance as needed. The other options are not correct because: Purchasing the materials is not the responsibility of the project manager, but the vendor who is performing the structured cabling activities. The project manager should only verify that the materials are suitable and available for the project. Assigning the resources is not the responsibility of the project manager, but the vendor who is performing the structured cabling activities. The project manager should only ensure that the vendor has the adequate and qualified resources to complete the work. Accepting delays in the work is not a good practice for the project manager, as it can negatively affect the project schedule, scope, and quality. The project manager should proactively identify and manage the risks and issues that may cause delays, and implement contingency plans or corrective actions if necessary. Negotiating with the vendors is not a task that the project manager should do during the execution of the structured cabling activities, as it should have been done during the planning and procurement phases of the project. The project manager should only adhere to the contract terms and conditions that have been agreed upon with the vendor, and only renegotiate if there are significant changes or disputes that require it. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Planning Projects, Part 4 (Procurement and Communication), pages 243-260; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Project Planning, Objective 2.5: Given a scenario, plan procurement for a project; Domain 3: Project Execution, Objective 3.2: Given a scenario, execute and monitor project tasks using traditional methodologies. Question #:46 A company that is implementing an updated version of its main product hired a new project manager to lead the project. Prior to the start of the project, the sponsor asked the project manager to prepare a report on the defects found in the previous project to avoid a decrease in production. The report shows that the two main defects are related to cosmetic and physical damage to the product. Which of the following charts would BEST prioritize which defects to address? A. Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 27 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 A. Pareto B. Run C. Control D. Histogram Answer: A Explanation The project manager should use a Pareto chart to prioritize which defects to address for the product. A Pareto chart is a type of bar chart that shows the frequency or impact of different causes of problems or defects. It also shows a cumulative line that represents the percentage of the total frequency or impact. A Pareto chart can help to prioritize the causes that have the most significant effect on the quality of the product and apply the 80/20 rule, which states that 80% of the problems are caused by 20% of the causes. Question #:47 A meeting agenda included the following items:. Review the goals of the project.. Review the progress of the project.. Discuss if the project is ready to move forward. Which of the following best describes this type of meeting? A. Stand-up B. Monthly status C. Gap analysis D. Gate review Answer: D Explanation A gate review is a type of meeting that evaluates the completion and quality of a project stage and decides whether the project can proceed to the next stage. A gate review is a formal governance step that involves reviewing the goals, progress, risks, deliverables, and benefits of the project, and discussing if the project is still aligned with the business strategy and stakeholder expectations. A gate review can have different outcomes, such as go, kill, hold, recycle, or conditional go, depending on the assessment of the project status and viability123. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 28 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 Project Change Management, p. 323; Everything Project Managers Need To Know About Gate Reviews | monday.com Blog; Gate reviews: What to do and why you need them - Rebel’s Guide to Project Management; Gates and How to Operate Them - GenSight Question #:48 Which of the following is a typical characteristic of Scrum? A. Large teams B. Low-risk scope C. Self-organized team D. Well-defined scope Answer: C Explanation A self-organized team is a typical characteristic of Scrum, which is an agile framework for managing complex projects. A self-organized team is a group of motivated and skilled individuals who have the autonomy and authority to make decisions and collaborate on how to deliver the project goals. A self-organized team does not rely on a manager or a leader to assign tasks, monitor progress, or resolve issues. Instead, a self-organized team uses Scrum events, such as daily stand-ups, sprint planning, sprint review, and sprint retrospective, to coordinate their work, communicate with each other, and inspect and adapt their process and product123. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 2: Project Methodologies, p. 55; Scrum Characteristics - Scrumversity; What is Scrum? | Scrum.org; Characteristics of a Great Scrum Team | Scrum.org Question #:49 A PM needs to calculate the progress of the whole project scope for a presentation to the sponsor. Which of the following is the first document the PM should update? A. Project network diagram B. Gantt chart C. Issue log D. Risk report Answer: B Explanation A gantt chart is a visual representation of a project timeline that shows the tasks, durations, dependencies, and resources of a project in a horizontal bar chart format. A gantt chart can help a project manager to calculate the Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 29 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 progress of the whole project scope by comparing the planned and actual start and finish dates of each task, as well as the percentage of completion and the critical path. A gantt chart is also a useful tool for communicating the project status and performance to the sponsor and other stakeholders. Therefore, the first document that the project manager should update to calculate the progress of the whole project scope is the gantt chart. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6: Schedule Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6: Schedule Management2; What Is a Gantt Chart? 7 Examples for Project Management3 Question #:50 During the testing phase of a project, the regression test fails due to a specific item that is disrupting the entire system. Which of the following documents should the project manager use to identify who requested this item? A. Issue log B. Risk register C. Defect log D. Traceability matrix Answer: D Explanation A traceability matrix is a document that maps the requirements of a project to the deliverables, test cases, and changes that are produced to meet those requirements. It helps the project manager to track the origin, status, and impact of each requirement throughout the project life cycle. A traceability matrix can also identify who requested or approved each requirement. Therefore, the project manager can use the traceability matrix to identify who requested the specific item that caused the regression test to fail12. Question #:51 A project manager is overseeing the implementation of a major upgrade to a critical ERP system. The project sponsor is requiring that the upgrade should not exceed more than three hours of downtime for the implementation and validation in production. During cutover, the team runs into a validation issue after 2.5 hours, and the process is only 70% through the validation steps Which of the following actions should the project manager take? A. Notify customers the downtime will take longer than expected. B. Add new team members to help speed up validation. C. Begin executing the rollback plan. D. Record the issue and proceed with the implementation. Answer: C Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 30 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 Explanation When a critical ERP system upgrade encounters a validation issue and is at risk of exceeding the allotted downtime, the project manager should begin executing the rollback plan. This action is taken to ensure that the system can be restored to its previous state without exceeding the downtime limit, thus minimizing the impact on the business operations. Question #:52 Given the following velocity chart: Which of the following updates on the project status should the Scrum master provide to the senior management team? A. The project utilized all of its available reserve. B. The project has scope creep. C. The project deviated from the critical path. D. The project is trending ahead of schedule. Answer: D Explanation A velocity chart is a tool used in agile project management to track the progress and performance of a project team over time. It shows the number of features or user stories completed in each iteration or sprint. The Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 31 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 planned timeline line represents the expected or ideal velocity, while the actual effort line shows the actual or achieved velocity. By comparing the two lines, the Scrum master can identify any gaps, trends, or issues in the project delivery. Based on the image, the most likely update that the Scrum master can provide to the senior management team is D. The project is trending ahead of schedule. This is because the actual effort line is above the planned timeline line for most of the time, indicating that the project team is completing more features than expected in each sprint. This means that the project is ahead of schedule and has a positive velocity variance. Question #:53 Which of the following PRINCE2 processes includes creating the project plan? A. Starting up a project B. Initiating a project C. Managing product delivery D. Directing a project Answer: B Explanation According to PRINCE2, a project management methodology, the process of initiating a project includes creating the project plan, which is a high-level plan that covers the whole project scope, schedule, budget, quality, and risks. The project plan is based on the project brief, the business case, and the product descriptions. The project plan is used to obtain the authorization from the project board to initiate and execute the project. The project plan is also refined and updated throughout the project life cycle as more information becomes available. The other processes are not directly involved in creating the project plan. Starting up a project is a pre-project process that ensures the project is viable and worthwhile, and produces the project brief and the initiation stage plan. Managing product delivery is a process that coordinates the delivery of products from the team managers to the project manager, and ensures that the work conforms to the quality criteria and the project plan. Directing a project is a process that enables the project board to oversee and control the project, and make key decisions and approvals. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management2; PRINCE2 Processes - 7 Processes Of PRINCE2 Explained3; Initiating a Project Process – This process is the procedure which defines the product quality, Project Product, project timeline, costs, the commitment of resources, risk analysis, and assembles the Project Initiation Documentation (PID)4 Question #:54 Which of the following is a consideration when determining a project's ESG factors? A. Project management methodology B. Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 32 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 B. IT infrastructure security C. Proper accounting practices D. Corporate values compliance Answer: D Explanation Corporate values compliance is a consideration when determining a project’s ESG factors, because it reflects how a project aligns with the ethical standards and social responsibility of the organization. Corporate values compliance can help to enhance the reputation, trust, and loyalty of the organization among its stakeholders, as well as to avoid legal or regulatory issues that may arise from violating the values. Corporate values compliance can also influence the project scope, objectives, deliverables, and stakeholders, as well as the project management methodology, processes, and practices. The other options are not directly related to ESG factors. Project management methodology is the approach or framework that guides how a project is planned, executed, monitored, and controlled. IT infrastructure security is the protection of the hardware, software, network, and data components of a project from unauthorized access, use, modification, or destruction. Proper accounting practices are the rules and standards that govern how financial transactions and statements are recorded, reported, and audited for a project. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management2; What Is Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) Investing Question #:55 During a status meeting for a multisystem program, a program manager learns that some deliverables from another project are delayed. Which of the following should the program manager do next? A. Obtain details from the owner of the project. B. Update the critical path for the project. C. Apply contingency reserves. D. Reestimate epic user stories. Answer: A Explanation The program manager should first obtain details from the owner of the project that is causing the delay, such as the root cause, the impact, the mitigation plan, and the revised timeline. This will help the program manager to assess the situation, communicate with the stakeholders, and adjust the program schedule accordingly. Updating the critical path, applying contingency reserves, and reestimating epic user stories are possible actions that the program manager may take after obtaining the details, depending on the severity and duration Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 33 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 of the delay. However, they are not the immediate next steps, as they require more information and analysis. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, Third Edition, Chapter 10: Executing the Project, page 2431; Dealing with delays - Project Management Institute2 Question #:56 A program manager is reviewing the project portfolio and prioritizing each project based on the company's strategic plan. Which of the following should be considered in this evaluation? (Select TWO). A. Company vision B. Global environment C. Brand value D. Mission statement E. Portfolio budget F. Local legislation Answer: A D Explanation Company vision and mission statement should be considered in the evaluation of the project portfolio based on the company’s strategic plan. Company vision is a statement that describes the long-term aspirations and desired future state of the organization. Company mission statement is a statement that defines the core purpose and values of the organization and how it serves its customers and stakeholders. These statements provide direction and guidance for the strategic planning and decision making of the organization. They also help to align the project portfolio with the organizational goals and objectives and ensure that the projects and programs in the portfolio deliver value and benefits to the organization12 Question #:57 During a sponsor meeting, a PM is assigned to manage a new external project for an IT consultant. The sponsor wants the PM to establish an agreement regarding the exchange of money between both parties. Which of the following documents would the PM most likely create? A. Business requirement B. Client statement of work C. Formal contract D. Project charter Answer: C Explanation Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 34 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 A formal contract is a legal document that defines the terms and conditions of the agreement between the project parties, such as the scope, schedule, budget, quality, deliverables, roles and responsibilities, payment methods, and dispute resolution mechanisms. A formal contract is essential for external projects, especially when there is an exchange of money involved, to protect the interests and rights of both parties and to ensure mutual understanding and compliance. A formal contract is different from a business requirement, which is a statement of the needs and expectations of the customer or stakeholder for the project outcome. A formal contract is also different from a client statement of work, which is a document that describes the work to be performed, the deliverables to be provided, and the acceptance criteria to be met by the project vendor or contractor. A formal contract is also different from a project charter, which is a document that authorizes the project and provides the high-level information about the project objectives, scope, stakeholders, and project manager. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Project Integration Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Project Integration Management2; 11 Essential Documents To Use as a Project Manager3 Question #:58 During a complex, multiyear project, a PM must discern which project tasks overlap so resources can be allocated appropriately. Which of the following is best for determining this information? A. PERT chart B. Milestone chart C. Gantt chart D. Budget burndown chart Answer: C Explanation A Gantt chart is a visual tool used in project management to represent the timing of tasks required to complete a project. It is particularly useful for showing the start and finish dates of elements of a project, dependencies between tasks, and the current schedule status. This makes it an ideal choice for a project manager to discern overlapping tasks and allocate resources efficiently. References = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide (PK0-005) Question #:59 A sponsor prefers to communicate with the team using email, phone calls, conversations in the hallway, and impromptu meetings. Which of the following types of communication is the sponsor using? A. Informal communication B. Formal communication C. Synchronous communication Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 35 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 D. Asynchronous communication Answer: A Explanation Informal communication is a type of communication that is casual, spontaneous, and unstructured. It does not follow any predefined rules, protocols, or formats. Examples of informal communication include email, phone calls, conversations in the hallway, and impromptu meetings12. The sponsor is using informal communication to communicate with the team, as these methods are convenient, flexible, and personal. However, informal communication may also have some drawbacks, such as lack of documentation, inconsistency, and potential for misunderstanding3. Therefore, the sponsor should also use formal communication when necessary, such as for official reports, contracts, and presentations4. Question #:60 A PM is working on a strategy to store records. Which of the following dements must be included in this plan? (Select TWO) A. Data management B. Issue management C. Work breakdown structure D. Document management E. Communication management F. Risk management Answer: A D Explanation A strategy to store records must include data management and document management as two essential elements. Data management is the process of ensuring that the data collected, stored, and used by the project is accurate, complete, consistent, secure, and accessible. Data management helps to maintain the quality and integrity of the project data and supports the analysis and reporting of the project outcomes1, p. 4 Document management is the process of creating, organizing, storing, retrieving, and disposing of project documents in a systematic and controlled way. Document management helps to ensure that the project documents are available, reliable, usable, and authentic throughout the project life cycle and beyond. Document management also helps to comply with the legal, regulatory, and organizational requirements for records retention and disposition2, p. 3 Question #:61 Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 36 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 Which of the following is a test that is done on an existing system to ensure the previous functionality still works after a change has been made? A. Smoke testing B. Regression testing C. Unit testing D. User acceptance testing Answer: B Explanation Regression testing is a type of testing that is done on an existing system to ensure that the previous functionality still works after a change has been made. Regression testing is a process of retesting or verifying that a software system or application still performs as expected after it has been modified or updated with new features, bug fixes, patches, etc. Regression testing can help to detect any errors or defects that may have been introduced by the change and ensure that no functionality has been broken or degraded. Question #:62 Which of the following should be considered first when determining the privacy management for project data? A. Evaluating the current privacy protection program B. Understanding applicable privacy regulations C. Maintaining awareness of industry best practices D. Implementing security role-based controls Answer: B Explanation Before starting a new project that involves personal data, the project manager should first understand the relevant privacy regulations that apply to the data subjects, the data controllers, and the data processors. These regulations may vary depending on the location, industry, and nature of the data. For example, GDPR applies to any project that processes the personal data of individuals in the European Union, regardless of where the project is based or executed. Understanding the applicable privacy regulations will help the project manager to identify the legal obligations, risks, and compliance requirements for the project data. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, Chapter 3: Project Planning, Section 3.4: Data Privacy and Security, p. 121-122; A Project Management Approach to Data Protection Compliance; 10 Data Protection Considerations Before Starting a New Project; Project Teams Must Manage Risk and New Requirements to Ensure Data Privacy Question #:63 Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 37 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 A project manager identifies stakeholders who will be impacted when a new product is delivered to the company. The project manager notices that more stakeholders will be positively impacted than negatively impacted. Which of the following actions should the project manager take? A. List both positively and negatively impacted stakeholders. B. Update the communication plan with the new findings. C. List the negatively impacted stakeholders only. D. List the positively impacted stakeholders only. Answer: B Explanation When a project manager identifies stakeholders who will be impacted by the delivery of a new product, it is important to update the communication plan to reflect these findings. This ensures that all stakeholders are informed about the project’s progress and how it may affect them, fostering transparency and managing expectations. References = The answer is based on standard project management practices and the typical use of communication plans in stakeholder management. For detailed information, please refer to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide and other official CompTIA resources. Question #:64 Given the following information: Which of the following represents the critical path of the project? A. Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 38 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 A. A-C-F-I-J B. A-C-F-H-J C. A-B-D-G-J D. A-B-E-G-J Answer: C Explanation The critical path of the project is the longest sequence of tasks that must be completed on time for the project to finish on schedule. It determines the shortest possible duration of the project and shows the tasks that have no slack or float. Any delay in the critical path tasks will affect the project completion date. To find the critical path, we need to calculate the earliest start (ES), earliest finish (EF), latest start (LS), latest finish (LF), and slack (S) for each task. We can use the table and the network diagram given in the question to do this. The formula for calculating the slack is S = LF - EF or S = LS - ES. A task with zero slack is on the critical path. The calculations are as follows: Task | Duration | ES | EF | LS | LF | S A | 10 | 0 | 10 | 0 | 10 | 0 B | 15 | 10 | 25 | 10 | 25 | 0 C | 10 | 10 | 20 | 15 | 25 | 5 D | 20 | 25 | 45 | 25 | 45 | 0 E | 10 | 25 | 35 | 35 | 45 | 10 F | 15 | 20 | 35 | 30 | 45 | 10 G | 5 | 45 | 50 | 45 | 50 | 0 H | 10 | 35 | 45 | 40 | 50 | 5 I | 20 | 35 | 55 | 30 | 50 | -5 J | 5 | 50 | 55 | 50 | 55 | 0 Based on the table, we can see that the tasks with zero slack are A, B, D, G, and J. Therefore, the critical path is A-B-D-G-J, which has a total duration of 55 days. The other options are not the correct critical paths, as they either include tasks with positive slack (such as C, E, F, and H) or have a longer duration than 55 days (such as A-C-F-I-J). Question #:65 Two team members have a minor disagreement on how a task should be performed. The project manager plans to meet with the team members to discuss the matter. Which of the following techniques should the project manager use to emphasize the areas of agreement and downplay the opposing views? A. Compromising B. Forcing C. Smoothing D. Collaborating Answer: C Explanation Smoothing is a conflict resolution technique that involves emphasizing the areas of agreement and minimizing the areas of difference. It is useful when the conflict is minor and the relationship between the parties is more important than the issue. Smoothing can help maintain harmony and avoid further escalation of the conflict1. Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 39 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 Question #:66 While working with a contractor, the project manager identified a communication conflict. The contractor did not agree that there was an issue. Which of the following should the project manager and contractor review? A. Scope of work B. Request for proposal C. Vendor rules of engagement D. Project schedule Answer: C Explanation The project manager and contractor should review the vendor rules of engagement, which are the guidelines and expectations for the communication and interaction between the project team and the contractor. The vendor rules of engagement can help to prevent or resolve communication conflicts by clarifying the roles and responsibilities, the frequency and mode of communication, the escalation process, the feedback mechanism, and the performance evaluation criteria of the contractor. The vendor rules of engagement are usually part of the contract or the procurement management plan. The vendor rules of engagement are different from the scope of work, which is the document that describes the work to be performed, the deliverables to be provided, and the acceptance criteria to be met by the contractor. The vendor rules of engagement are also different from the request for proposal, which is the document that solicits proposals from potential contractors by specifying the project requirements, evaluation criteria, and contract terms. The vendor rules of engagement are also different from the project schedule, which is the tool that displays the planned start and finish dates, durations, dependencies, and resources of the project activities and tasks. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 12: Procurement Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 12: Procurement Management2; Vendor Rules of Engagement3 Question #:67 A PM is working with stakeholders in the discovery phase and comparing the cost of the project to the cost savings the project will produce when it is complete. The output of this exercise will produce the: A. ROI. B. SOW. C. RFI. D. RPR Answer: A Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 40 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 Explanation The output of this exercise where the project manager is comparing the cost of the project to the cost savings the project will produce when it is complete will produce the return on investment (ROI). ROI is a financial metric that measures the profitability or efficiency of an investment by comparing its benefits or returns to its costs. ROI can help to evaluate the value or worth of a project and support decision making and prioritization. ROI is calculated by dividing the net benefits (benefits minus costs) by the total costs and multiplying by 100 to get a percentage. Question #:68 Which of the following BEST describes how an organization should coordinate management of multiple related projects? A. Apply the SDLC process. B. Establish a program. C. Consult the CCB. D. Use different frameworks Answer: B Explanation The BEST way to coordinate management of multiple related projects is to establish a program. A program is a group of related projects that are managed together to achieve specific strategic business objectives. References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 2.2.1 The organization should establish a program to coordinate management of multiple related projects. A program is a group of related projects, subprograms, and program activities that are managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits and control not available from managing them individually. A program can help to align multiple projects with strategic goals, optimize resources and risks, and deliver value to stakeholders. Question #:69 A project manager has been assigned to a new project. During the planning phase, the project manager needs to get an understanding of the purpose of the project. Which of the following should the project manager do? A. Collate the lessons learned. B. Perform a gap analysis. C. Review existing artifacts. D. Conduct a retrospective. Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 41 of 154 Practice Test CompTIA - PK0-005 Answer: C Explanation The project manager should review existing artifacts to get an understanding of the purpose of the project. Existing artifacts are documents or records that provide information about the project background, context, scope, objectives, requirements, stakeholders, and deliverables. They may include documents such as project proposal, project charter, business case, feasibility study, statement of work (SOW), or contract. Reviewing existing artifacts can help to clarify the project vision and expectations and provide a basis for planning and executing the project. Question #:70 A team is analyzing the backlog in order to decide what to include in the next sprint. Which of the following aspects is the most important for the team to take into consideration? A. Time to be fixed B. Impact to project C.