Bisc 110 Practice Test PDF

1. The immune system contains white blood cells that can do which of the following? a. Destroy microbes b. Produce antibodies c.Destroy phagocytes c. Both answers A and B are correct 2. Which of the following is the primary function of the lymphatic system? a. To transp...

1. The immune system contains white blood cells that can do which of the following? a. Destroy microbes b. Produce antibodies c.Destroy phagocytes c. Both answers A and B are correct 2. Which of the following is the primary function of the lymphatic system? a. To transport oxygen to body tissues b. To remove waste products and excess water from the blood c. To collect excess interstitial fluid, remove foreign substances, and return it to the bloodstream d. To circulate red blood cells throughout the body 3. How does the immune system contribute to the body’s defense against disease-causing agents? a. By absorbing nutrients from the bloodstream and distributing them throughout the body b. By circulating lymphocytes to detect and destroy pathogens, and by using chemicals to neutralize harmful invaders. c. By producing red blood cells and distributing oxygen to tissues. d. By maintaining fluid balance in tissues through the lymphatic vessels. 4. The function of T lymphocytes is to (?) a. engulf debris and bacteria b. trigger inflammation c. coordinate the adaptive immune response and attack virus infected or cancerous cells d. produce antibodies 5. The 1st line of defense are innate defenses which include physical and chemical barriers—which of the following is NOT a physical or chemical barrier? a. Macrophages b. Stomach Acid c. Mucus linings d. Resident microbes 6. The 2nd line of defense are internal innate defense—which of the following is 2nd line of defense? a. Certain WBC’s, such as phagocytes b. Inflammation c. Fever d. All of the above 7. Basophils release a chemical that causes inflammation by dilating blood vessels and increasing blood flow to the affected area. Which chemical does basophils release? a. Acetaminophen  b. Histamine c. Insulin d. Adrenaline 8. Upon first exposure, adaptive immune responses have a (?) and innate defenses have a (?) a. delayed response; immediate response b. immediate response; strong response c. strong response; weak response d. preventive response; fast response 9. What is the primary target of an adaptive immune response, that is carried out by the lymphocytes? a. the antibody b. an MHC marker c. the antigen d. a cytokine 10. What is the role of macrophages in the immune response? a. to produce antibodies b. to engulf pathogens and display antigens on their surface c. to produce cytokines d. to differentiate into memory cells 11. What happens after helper T cells are activated by the macrophage? a. They divide into effector cells and memory cells b. They release toxic chemicals to kill pathogens c. They produce antibodies d. They directly kill the pathogen 12. Which of the following is true about cytotoxic T cells? a. They attack pathogens by producing antibodies b. They help activate B cells to produce antibodies c. They only respond to bacterial infections d. They bind to antigens on infected cells and release toxic chemicals 13. Why is the secondary immune response faster and stronger than the primary immune response? a. Because of the presence of cytotoxic T cells b. Because the pathogen is weaker in the second infection c. Because of memory cells created during the first infection can quickly become effector cells. d. Because the first immune response fails to activate helper T cells. 14. What is the primary purpose of a vaccine? a. To cure an infection b. To teach the immune system to recognize a pathogen without causing illness c. To directly kill viruses d. To inhibit bacterial growth 15. Why are antiviral drugs more difficult to develop than antibiotics? a. Viruses mutate rapidly, making it harder to target them b. Viruses are larger than bacteria c. Antibiotics are already effective against viruses d. Viruses do not cause infections in humans 16. What is Herd Immunity? a. Protection from a disease that happens when a small number of people are immune to it. b. Protection from a disease through the use of antibiotics c. Protection from a disease by taking antiviral drugs d. Protection from a disease that happens when a large percentage of the population is immune to it. 17. Which statement accurately describes the role of chromosomes in inheritance? a. Chromosomes carry genes that code for proteins determining traits b. Chromosomes directly produce proteins in offspring. c. Chromosomes transfer phenotypes between generations. d. Chromosomes are only active during fertilization. 18. What is the definition of an allele? a. A section of DNA that produces enzymes. b. A specific version of a gene. c. A type of protein involved in cell division. d. A chromosome found only in gametes. 19. How many alleles does an individual inherit for each gene, and from where? a. Two, one from each parent. b. One, only from the father. c. Two, only from the mother. d. Three, one from each parent and one randomly. 20. How do environmental factors and polygenic inheritance interact to influence phenotype? a. Environmental factors determine which genes are inherited, while polygenic inheritance produces traits from a single gene. b. Environmental factors can modify the expression of multiple genes contributing to a trait, leading to a range of phenotypes in polygenic inheritance. c. Environmental factors only influence traits governed by codominance, while polygenic traits is always tied to incomplete dominance.  d. Environmental factors ensure that only dominant alleles are expressed in polygenic traits. 21. Which term refers to an individual with two different alleles for a specific gene? a. Homozygous b. Heterozygous c. Homologous d. Polygenic 22. Which type of inheritance pattern results in traits that show a continuous range of phenotypes, such as height or skin color? a. Codominance b. Polygenic inheritance c. Incomplete dominance d. Mendelian inheritance 23. What did Mendel’s experiments with pea plants reveal about recessive traits? a. Recessive traits are always visible in the first (F1) generation. b. Recessive traits are masked in the first (F1) generation but reappear in predictable ratios in the second (F2) generation. c. Recessive traits do not follow Mendel’s laws of inheritance. d. Recessive traits are only inherited with dominant traits. 24. Which inheritance pattern describes a heterozygous individual displaying a blended, intermediate phenotype, such as a pink flower from a cross between red and white flowering plants? a. Codominance(both traits equally visible) b. Incomplete dominance c. Dominant-recessive inheritance d. Polygenic inheritance 25. How many phenotypes are possible in the ABO blood group system found in humans, where the A and B alleles can be co-dominant (O is recessive) ? a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five 26. An organism displays a dominant trait, but genetic testing reveals it carries one dominant allele and one recessive allele for that gene. Based on this information, how would the organism's genetic makeup and observable traits be classified? a. Homozygous for the genotype; heterozygous for the phenotype b. Heterozygous for the genotype; dominant for the phenotype c. Homozygous for the phenotype; recessive for the genotype d. Heterozygous for the phenotype; dominant for the genotype 27. Which of the following traits is an example of polygenic inheritance? a. Blood type b. Earlobe attachment c. Skin color d. Tongue rolling 28. What tool is used to track inheritance patterns through family generations? a. Punnett square b. Pedigree analysis c. Karyotype d. DNA fingerprinting 29. In a cross between two heterozygous parents, what proportion of the offspring will express the dominant phenotype? a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100% 30. Which mode of inheritance in a horse with both red and white fur results in both alleles being fully expressed in its phenotype, such as an animal with roan coloration? a. Codominance b. Incomplete dominance c. Recessive inheritance d. Polygenic inheritance 31. Which of the following best exemplifies pleiotropy in genetics? a. A mutation in a single gene leading to both vision problems and skeletal abnormalities. b. Multiple genes interacting to determine an individual’s hair color. c. A single gene determining whether a plant produces red or white flowers. d. A combination of environmental factors influencing the expression of a genetic trait. 32. Where does spermatogenesis (sperm production) occur in the male reproductive system? a. Epididymis b. Vas deferens c. Seminiferous tubules d. Prostate gland 33. Where do egg cells (oocytes) undergo meiosis in the female reproductive system? a. Follicles of the Uterus b. Uterine tubes, or oviduct c. Follicles of the ovary  d. Cervix 34. Which of the following occurs during the ovarian cycle? a. The uterus prepares for implantation by thickening the endometrium b. A follicle ruptures and releases an egg (ovulation) c. The sperm fertilizes the egg in the uterine tube d. Progesterone secretion declines, causing menstruation 35. Which of the following hormones primarily regulates the menstrual cycle by stimulating the thickening of the uterine lining? a. Estrogen and Progesterone b. LH and FSH c. Testosterone d. None of the above 36. Which of the following structures is both part of the male reproductive system and also the urinary system, since it is involved in the excretion of urine? a. Epididymis b. Seminal vesicle c. Urethra d. Prostate gland 37. Which of the following best describes oogenesis in females? a. The process of producing sperm in the testes b. The production and maturation of eggs in the ovaries c. The formation of the corpus luteum in the ovary after the follicle ruptures d. The shedding of the endometrial lining during menstruation 38. What happens to the ruptured follicle after ovulation in females? a. It becomes a primary oocyte b. It becomes the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone c. It becomes the endometrium d. It degenerates into a secondary oocyte 39. Which of the following best describes spermatogenesis in males? a. The process of producing and maturing eggs in the ovaries b. The formation and development of sperm cells in the seminiferous tubules of the testes c. The secretion of hormones by the prostate gland d. The addition of nourishing fluids by the seminal vesicles 40. Which of the following is the primary function of gonads in both males and females? a. To produce and store the gametes (eggs or sperm cells) b. To transport gametes to the reproductive organs c. To secrete hormones that regulate secondary sex characteristics  d. To provide nourishment to the developing fetus 41. When does ovulation typically occur in the female menstrual cycle? a. At the beginning (~day 1) b. Around mid cycle (~day 14) c. At the end (~Day 28) 42. Which hormones are primarily responsible for regulating the menstrual (uterine) cycle? a. LH and FSH b. Estrogen and progesterone c. Testosterone and estrogen d. FSH and progesterone 43. Which hormones primarily regulate the ovarian cycle? a. Estrogen and progesterone b. LH and FSH c. Testosterone and estrogen d. Progesterone and prolactin 44. What is being shed during menstruation in the female reproductive cycle? a. The egg b. The endometrial lining of the uterus c. The vaginal lining d. The corpus luteum e. All of the above 45. What is the purpose of each parent contributing a haploid gamete in sexual reproduction? a. To ensure a diploid zygote is formed b. To ensure a haploid zygote is formed c. To make two haploid zygotes are formed d. A tetraploid zygote is formed 46. What is true about the follicles in the ovaries of females at birth? a. Females are born with a few follicles that mature after puberty b. Females are born with millions of follicles in each ovary c. Follicles develop only after ovulation begins d. Females are born with no follicles in the ovaries 47. Which of the following is an example of an acute disease? A. Diabetes B. Hypertension C. pneumonia D. Rheumatoid arthritis 48. What type of immune response is involved in allergies? A. The destruction of insulin-producing cells  B. Friendly fire against the body’s own molecules C. Exaggerated immune responses to harmless substances D. All of the above 49. Which chronic disease is the leading cause of death in the United States? A. Diabetes B. Heart Disease C. Cancer D. Stroke 50. What does the systolic number in blood pressure represent (e.g. the top number in 120/89) ? A. Relaxation phase of the heart, when pressure is lowest B. Contraction phase of the heart, when pressure is highest C. Blood vessel dilation D. Blood vessel constriction 51. What substance primarily makes up arterial plaques in atherosclerosis? A. Glucose B. Fat, cholesterol, and calcium C. White blood cells D. cholesterol only 52. Why is hypertension often referred to as a “silent killer”? A. It causes immediate, noticeable symptoms. B. It typically goes undiagnosed and unmanaged, causing damage. C. It only affects older individuals. D. It directly causes heart attacks. 53. What is the primary difference between acute and chronic diseases? A. Acute diseases are contagious, and chronic diseases are not. B. Acute diseases have a rapid onset but short duration, while chronic diseases are long-lasting. C. Acute diseases are only treated with medication, while chronic diseases require surgery. D. Acute diseases affect only the immune system, while chronic diseases do not. 54. How does atherosclerosis increase the risk of coronary heart disease? A. By decreasing the oxygen supply to muscles. B. By leading to excessive blood vessel dilation. C. By causing plaques to block arteries and reduce blood flow. D. By directly destroying heart tissue. 55. What makes exercise essential for cardiovascular health? A. It completely eliminates the risk of cardiovascular diseases. B. It lowers blood pressure by increasing the systolic pressure. C. It increases blood cholesterol levels for better arterial function. D. It strengthens the heart muscle and vessel walls,, reduces stress, and prevents plaque buildup.