Anatomy and Physiology Final Exam Review PDF

Final exam review Module 1 1.. Homeostasis is defined as = the process by which living organisms maintain a stable internal environment despite external changes 2. What component of a negative feedback loop is responsible for detecting some sort of change that has taken the body out of homeostasis...

Final exam review Module 1 1.. Homeostasis is defined as = the process by which living organisms maintain a stable internal environment despite external changes 2. What component of a negative feedback loop is responsible for detecting some sort of change that has taken the body out of homeostasis (away from normal values)? Receptor or sensor 3. What organ is most likely to be the control center in a negative feedback loop? The brain more specifically the hypothalamus 4. When two or more atoms bond by sharing electrons, the resulting combination is called a/an = covalent bond 5. The bond that forms from the attraction between a cation and an anion is called a/an = ionic bond 6. An atom that gives up electrons becomes a/an = cation 7. Osmosis is a passive process in which there is net movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane. 8. What is the difference between a cation and an anion? difference is that cations are positively charged (due to loss of electrons), and anions are negatively charged (due to gain of electrons). 9 What will happen to a normal red blood cell that is placed into pure water? water will enter the cell due to osmosis. 10. In a negative feedback system, the effector will create a response that does what? (hint – this question is asking in a general sense – not using a specific example) the effector will create a response that counteracts or reduces the initial change that moved the system away from its set point, bringing the system back into balance or homeostasis. 11. Proteins are synthesized (made) by combining amino acids into one or more chains. 12. Which of the following lists the structural organization of the body in order of increasing complexity? (hint - know all the levels of complexity from simplest to most complex in order so that you can pick out the right list from the given choices) Chemical level (atoms and molecules) Cellular level (cells) Tissue level (tissues) Organ level (organs) Organ system level (organ systems) Organismal level (the whole organism) 13. What molecule is the most abundant (common) in a typical cell membrane? Phospholipid 14. The natural movement of particles from an area where they are in high concentration to an area where they are in low concentration is called diffusion 15. The family of organic molecules (biomolecules) that has the greatest variety of functions is proteins Module 2 1. Immature cells found in both loose and dense connective tissue are called fibroblasts 2. Ouch, you just stepped on a sticker burr with your bare feet. The sticker would pierce the epidermal layers of the sole of your foot in which order? Epidermis , dermis , subcutaneous layer 3. Which type of protein fibers found in connective tissue are straight, unbranched, strong, and stretch resistant? Collagen fibers 4. The living, rapidly dividing cells that produce new hair cells and thus make hair grow are called the hair matrix cells 5. Which region of the integumentary system would be likely to contain a large amount of fat/adipose tissue? Hypodermis 6. What is the name for the scientific study of tissues? Histology 7. Name the four types of tissues found in the human body = epithelial tissue , connective tissue , muscle tissue , nervous tissue 8. How do nutrients and oxygen reach the cells that form epithelial tissue? Through a process called diffusion 9. The reticular lamina of a basement membrane is produced by connective tissue cells, while the basal lamina of the basement membrane is produced by epithelial cells. 10. Glands, such as the thyroid gland, that secrete their products directly into the extracellular fluid and blood rather than through central ducts are classified as = endocrine glands 11. How are synovial membranes different from all the other types of membranes? Synovial membranes are different from all other types of membranes because they do not have an epithelial layer. Instead, they are made up primarily of connective tissue. 12. Which type of epidermal cell is responsible for producing pigmentation in the skin? Melanocyte 13. The extracellular matrix of connective tissue is composed of fibers and ground substance 14. Keratin is the protein found in large amounts in the superficial layers of the epidermis. 15. Goblet cells produce and secrete mucus Module 3 1. What structure makes up the basic framework of spongy bone? Trabeculae 2. What is the primary difference between embryonic and adult skeletons? the embryonic skeleton is mostly cartilage, and as the organism grows, it gradually transforms into an adult skeleton made primarily of bone through processes like ossification. 3. The terms dorsiflexion and plantar flexion pertain to movements made by which body part? Foot and ankle 4. If calcium levels in the body are too low, receptors in the blood detect this and send a signal to the parathyroid glands which increases production of parathyroid hormone (Hint: think about the negative feedback loop discussed in chapter 6) 5. Which of the following types of joints allows the greatest range of motion? (choose one from a list) ball-and-socket joint 6. What is found inside the lacunae in both compact and spongy bone? Osteocytes 7. Where is red bone marrow found? Spongey (cancellous) bone 8. Why are older women (post-menopause) more prone to osteoporosis than men or younger women (premenopause)? Older women (post-menopause) are more prone to osteoporosis than men or younger women (premenopause) primarily due to a decline in estrogen levels that occurs after menopause. 9. If a person is Vitamin D deficient, bones do not harden the way they are supposed to and can become rubbery and deformed, a medical condition known as = rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. 10. If a joint is classified as a synarthrosis joint, what does that mean? The joint is immovable 11. The ability to swing your arm around in big circles is possible because of the ball-and-socket joint found at the shoulder. 12. In compact bone, progressively larger layered structures that make up osteons are collectively (together) called = concentric lamellae 13. Which cell type is capable of producing ground substance and collagen fibers in the matrix of bone tissue? Osteoblast 14. Synovial fluid is produced by which structure in a synovial joint? Synovial membrane 15. The innermost layer of the articular capsule of a synovial joint is called the synovial membrane Module 4 1. A neuron has a resting membrane potential of 70 millivolts (hint - value on a voltmeter) 2. Very fast, saltatory conduction of action potentials along the axon of a neuron is made possible by the presence of myelin. (hint - name the structure) 3. In a neuron, the entry of calcium ions into the axon terminal stimulates vesicles containing neurotransmitters to move to the membrane and release their contents into the synaptic cleft. 4. The structure on a neuron that carries stimuli towards the cell body is called a/an = dendrite 5. Assume a neuron has depolarized to threshold and an action potential begins. What is the first type of channel that opens during the initiation of an action potential? Voltage-gated sodium channel 6. A cluster/group of neuron cell bodies found in the peripheral nervous system is called a = ganglion 7. Schwann cells have the same function as what other type of neuroglia? Oligodendrocytes 8. During an action potential, a neuron repolarizes when K+ ions begin to leave the inside of the cell. (Hint: describe the type of change in the membrane potential) 9. The point at which one neuron communicates with a second neuron is called the = synapse 10. Neurons are excitable cells. What does that mean? Excitable cells are cells that can respond to stimuli by generating an electrical signal (such as an action potential). For neurons, this means they can undergo rapid changes in their membrane potential in response to external or internal signals. 11. Consider a neuron in the middle of undergoing an action potential, immediately after the membrane potential has hit its peak (most positive) voltage, which type of voltage-gated channels now begin to open? Voltage-gated potassium channel 12. At what point is ATP required during an action potential in a neuron? Is required before and after the action potential 13. What two types of stimuli can be used to open or closed gated ion channels? Voltage stimuli and chemical stimuli 14. What is the function of monoamine oxidase (MAO)?By regulating neurotransmitter breakdown, MAO is vital for proper neural communication and overall homeostasis. 15. Nervous tissue is composed primarily of neurons and glial cells. Module 5 1. What is the primary function of the cerebellum? Is to coordinate and regulate motor activity 2. The middle layer of the meninges is called the arachnoid mater 3. Control of various activities in the body by the cerebrum is contralateral. What does this mean?The term contralateral means that the cerebrum controls activities on the opposite side of the body. 4. Cerebrospinal fluid flows from the fourth ventricle of the brain into the central canal of the spinal cord. True or False? True 5. What does adrenergic transmission mean? the process of nerve signaling that involves the release of norepinephrine (noradrenaline) or epinephrine (adrenaline) as neurotransmitters 6. Sometimes when you are afraid or very nervous, the palms of your hands become sweaty. What part of the nervous system is responsible for stimulating sweat glands to make and release more sweat? The sympathetic nervous system 7. In a reflex arc, where would you find the integration center, the site where the sensory neuron and motor neuron synapse? the integration center is located in the central nervous system (CNS), typically within the spinal cord or brainstem. 8. Both divisions of the autonomic nervous system innervate the heart. Release of norepinephrine makes the heart beat faster and stronger, while release of acetylcholine makes the heart beat more slowly. (hint – name the neurotransmitters) 9. The subdural space lies between what two layers of the meninges? Dura mater and arachnoid mater 10. What two structures in the brain are known for producing hormones? Hypothalamus (produces hormones like oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone, ADH).Pituitary gland (releases hormones like growth hormone, ACTH, and TSH). 11. What is the primary function of the thalamus? the thalamus acts as a relay station for sensory information, directing it to the appropriate areas of the cerebral cortex for processing. 12. What types of emotions does the limbic system regulate? The limbic system regulates basic emotions like fear, anger, happiness, and sadness, as well as emotional responses related to memory. 13. From the list of activities below, which of these would occur if the parasympathetic nervous system had been activated? (hint: compare and contrast the activities of the SNS and PSNS) Rest and digest functions. 14. The largest region of the brain is the _______________ Cerebrum. 15. In the autonomic nervous system, which neurotransmitter is released by preganglionic neurons in order to stimulate action potentials in postganglionic neurons?Acetylcholine (ACh). MODULE 6 (Chapters 12-13) 1. A small percentage of the neurons leaving the eyes through the optic nerve wind up in the corpora quadrigemina. What information is processed there? The corpora quadrigemina processes reflexive responses to visual stimuli, such as orienting the eyes and head toward moving objects or bright light. 2. Hormones that work as transcription factors target what structure inside a target cell? They target the nucleus of the cell, where they bind to DNA and regulate gene expression. 3. Receptors in the blood that monitor pH belong to the family of receptors known as ______________ Chemoreceptors. 4. The photoreceptor that provides good black and white vision even in low light situations is called a ________. Rod. 5. Considering the concept of top-down control in endocrinology, what structure in the brain represents the highest level of control (starts the chain of endocrine effects)?The hypothalamus. 6. Slow pain can be felt in internal organs, often near the surface of the skin near or even far from the actual location of the organ. This ability to perceive slow pain deep in the body near the surface is called _________ Referred pain. 7. Most of the neurons leaving the eyes through the optic nerve wind up in the cerebrum. What information is processed there? The visual cortex in the occipital lobe processes visual information such as shape, color, motion, and depth perception. 8. When the hypothalamus begins releasing thyroid releasing hormone (TRH), the ___________ responds by releasing ___________. The anterior pituitary responds by releasing thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). 9. Receptors in the blood detect that glucose levels in the blood are too high, and this triggers the pancreas to produce and release more of the hormone insulin. Insulin causes body cells to remove glucose from the blood. This scenario is an example of which type of stimulus that "turns on" an endocrine gland (in this case - the pancreas)? Humoral stimulus. 10. What happens when movement of fluid in the cochlea bends the stereocilia in hair cells? Ion channels open, leading to a depolarization of the hair cells, which generates electrical signals transmitted to the auditory nerve. 11. Hair cells in the ear that respond to sound waves belong to the family of receptors known as____________ Mechanoreceptors. 12. What is meant by the term “tropic effect” in relation to hormonal control? A tropic effect refers to the action of a hormone that stimulates another endocrine gland to release its hormones. 13. Would a water-soluble or lipid soluble hormone travel through the blood easily alone, without an escort ? Water-soluble hormones travel easily in the blood without an escort. 14. Would a water-soluble or lipid soluble hormone have a long half-life (typically minutes to hours) ? Lipid-soluble hormones generally have a longer half-life. 15. Structures in the inner ear are responsible for providing information to the brain about equilibrium and _________Balance. MODULE 7 (Chapter 8 Part A) 1. Why do we refer to skeletal muscle "cells" as fibers?Skeletal muscle cells are referred to as fibers because they are elongated, cylindrical, and thread-like in shape. 2. What is the name of the protein found in the sarcoplasm of skeletal muscle fibers that helps carry and distribute oxygen efficiently to all parts of the fiber? Myoglobin. 3. A characteristic of muscle tissue is that it is elastic. What does that mean? Elasticity means that muscle tissue can return to its original shape and length after being stretched or contracted. 4. A feature unique to muscle tissue is its ability to convert chemical energy in the molecule ATP into _________ (hint – another type of energy) Mechanical energy. 5. Which muscle type(s) is/are not striated? Smooth muscle. 6. A terminal cistern is an enlarged region at the end of a section of ________ The sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). 7. What would happen if the structural protein dystrophin was missing from a muscle fiber? Without dystrophin, the muscle fiber would lose structural integrity, leading to muscle damage and degeneration, as seen in conditions like muscular dystrophy. 8. Which of the following describes a triad correctly? A triad consists of a T-tubule flanked by two terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 9. What is the name of the connective tissue layer that wraps around an entire muscle (e.g. the deltoid muscle)? The epimysium. 10. What is the basic functional unit of a skeletal muscle myofibril called?A sarcomere 11. ____________________ are rod-like bundles of proteins that fill the center of a skeletal muscle fiber. Myofibrils. 12. We discussed three types of proteins found in thick and thin filaments. Which type of protein is responsible for starting (on) and stopping (off) muscle contractions?Regulatory proteins (troponin and tropomyosin). 13. What structure marks the ends of a sarcomere? Z-discs (or Z-lines). 14. What is the sarcolemma? The sarcolemma is the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber. 15. Which part of a myosin protein physically connects to actin?The myosin head. MODULE 8 (Chapter 8 Part B) 1. Do we define a motor unit is defined as all the muscle fibers that are bundled together in one fascicle? No, a motor unit is defined as a single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates, which may be spread across multiple fascicles. 2. On what part of the sarcolemma would you expect to find acetylcholine (ACh) receptors? At the motor end plate of the sarcolemma. 3. During skeletal muscle contraction, what happens when a molecule of ATP bound to a myosin head hydrolyzes (breaks) into ADP and Pi (inorganic phosphate)? The myosin head cocks into a high-energy position, preparing to bind to actin and perform a power stroke. 4. Muscle fibers store the polysaccharide carbohydrate _________________, which can be broken down into glucose molecules for use in ATP production. Glycogen. 5. To stop muscle contraction, calcium ions must be removed from the sarcoplasm. How is this accomplished? Calcium ions are actively pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum using calcium pumps. 6. What is the name for the junction/synapse between a motor neuron and a muscle fiber? The neuromuscular junction (NMJ). 7. The enzyme __________________ can produce ATP from ADP and Pi and provide about 10-12 more seconds of muscle activity once the muscle's ATP stores are depleted. Creatine kinase. 8. How would muscles respond if a botulism infection prevented motor neurons from releasing Ach? Muscles would become paralyzed because ACh is necessary to stimulate muscle contraction. 9. In a sarcomere, calcium ions bind to ________________, causing it to change shape. Troponin. 10. An Olympic caliber marathon runner is likely to have a large percentage of ________________ fibers in her legs? Slow oxidative (Type I) fibers. 11. When muscles are using glycolysis to generate ATP, _______________ is generated as a bi-product and is removed from muscles. Lactic acid. 12. What happens when an action potential travels into a t-tubule on a muscle fiber? The action potential triggers the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. 13. What are the three phases (in order) that occur during a muscle twitch? Latent period Contraction phase Relaxation phase 14. A motor neuron generating multiple action potentials at a muscle fiber very close together in time for several minutes would produce ___________ (Hint – what contraction pattern does this scenario describe) Tetanus (a sustained contraction). 15. How is the H-zone affected as a muscle goes from fully relaxed to fully contracted? The H-zone decreases in size and may disappear entirely during full contraction. MODULE 9 (Chapter 14) 1. What component makes up the largest percentage of a sample of whole blood? Plasma (approximately 55%). 2. Why do men tend to have a higher hematocrit than women? Men have higher hematocrit levels because of higher levels of testosterone, which stimulates erythropoietin (EPO) production and increases red blood cell production. 3. What is the best term to use to describe the fluid that surrounds and bathes the cells of the body? Interstitial fluid. 4. Inside spongy bone, ________ produce megakaryocytes which produce ____________. (hint – think about cell types as answers) Hemocytoblasts (pluripotent stem cells) produce megakaryocytes, which produce platelets. 5. Which of the following is NOT a family of proteins typically found dissolved in plasma? (hint: find the one that is not a plasma protein from a list) Plasma proteins include albumins, globulins, and fibrinogen. Proteins unrelated to plasma functions (e.g., collagen) would not be found in plasma. 6. If someone is at risk for a stroke, they might be prescribed aspirin. Why? Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of blood clot formation that could lead to a stroke. 7. Why is blood type O considered to be the "universal donor"? Blood type O is considered the "universal donor" because red blood cells from type O individuals lack A and B antigens on their surface. These antigens are the markers that can trigger an immune response in recipients with a different blood type. 8. Leukemia refers to a family of cancers that affect ___________ white blood cells (leukocytes). 9. If a baby has inherited the A allele for blood type from one parent, and the O allele for blood type from the other parent, what "blood type" will this baby have? The baby will have blood type A, because the A allele is dominant over the O allele. 10. Which component of a RBC is NOT recycled once the cell has been removed from circulation and destroyed? The heme group is not recycled as a whole; its waste product, bilirubin, is excreted from the body. 11. What type of ion does oxygen bind to and then unbind from within a molecule of heme? Iron (Fe²⁺) ions in the heme group bind to and release oxygen. 12. What two organs are responsible for removing bilirubin from the body after it is produced from the heme of destroyed blood cells?The liver and the kidneys play major roles in removing bilirubin from the body. 13. What chemical cues cause a pluripotent stem cell to develop into one of the types of white blood cells?Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) and cytokines guide the differentiation of pluripotent stem cells into specific types of white blood cells. 14. If the A allele and the B allele for human blood type are co-dominant, then what happens if a person has one copy of each allele (AB)? The person will have blood type AB, which expresses both A and B antigens on the red blood cells. 15. What medical condition is characterized by someone who has too few platelets in their blood?Thrombocytopenia. MODULE 10 (Chapters 15-16) 1.What are the two primary advantages of having a four-chambered heart? Separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, allowing for efficient gas exchange. Ability to maintain different pressures in the pulmonary and systemic circuits, optimizing blood flow. 2. If you decreased the diameter (width) of a blood vessel, this would ____________ resistance and thus _____________ the rate of blood flow. (choose the term increase or decrease correctly for each blank) Increase resistance and thus decrease the rate of blood flow 3. At any given moment, where is most of the blood (~60%) in a human located? In the veins and venules (the venous system). 4. What is systole?Systole refers to the contraction phase of the heart, during which the ventricles pump blood out to the lungs and the rest of the body. 5. The vessels that directly feed blood into capillary beds are called ________.Arterioles. 6. In the SA node, spontaneous depolarization of SA node cells occurs because the number of ___________ leak channels is greater than the number of ____________ leak channels. (hint – answers are ions) The number of Na⁺ (sodium) leak channels is greater than the number of K⁺ (potassium) leak channels. 7. What component of blood plasma is important for establishing the colloid osmotic pressure that draws water into capillaries via absorption (aka reabsorption)?Albumin. 8. What two events in the heart occurring very close together in time create the QRS complex on an ECG? Ventricular depolarization. Atrial repolarization. 9. Movement of what ion is responsible for the rapid depolarization during an action potential generated in cells of the SA node (sinoatrial node)? Calcium ions (Ca²⁺). 10. Does the right ventricle contain oxygenated or deoxygenated blood? Deoxygenated blood. 11. The largest arteries are elastic arteries. What are two advantages to having arteries so close to the heart be very elastic? They can absorb the pressure generated during ventricular systole, reducing stress on smaller arteries.They help maintain a continuous blood flow by recoiling during diastole. 12. The endocardium of the heart is composed of _________ (hint – a tissue type) Simple squamous epithelium and connective tissue. 13. The total amount of blood that is pushed out of the ventricles during systole is called the _____________ Stroke volume. 14. Which branch of the circulatory system has the higher blood pressure, the systemic circulation or the pulmonary circulation? Systemic circulation. 15. What happens to the hydrostatic pressure as blood flows from the arterial side of a capillary to the venous side of a capillary?Hydrostatic pressure decreases as blood flows from the arterial to the venous side. MODULE 11 (Chapter 17) 1. The ___________ immune system is present on day one of life and is considered to be a generalized first response system to a wide variety of challenges to the human body. Innate immune system. 2. A vaccine is designed to generate a _________________ response, which might be slow or ineffective but prepares the body for a stronger response in the future. Primary immune response. 3. Which type of lymphatic tissue is surrounded by a connective tissue capsule? Lymph nodes. 4. If lymph capillaries were unable to remove enough water from the interstitial fluid, too much water would build up there and _________ would result. Edema. 5. Antibodies are produced and released by ____________ (hint: cell type) Plasma cells (which are activated B cells) 6. Which type of biomolecule, found in food, is absorbed out of the small intestine and into lacteals? Lipids (fats). 7. Which types of tonsils, located right at the back of the mouth can be infected so often in children that they wind up being surgically removed? Palatine tonsils. 8 Which large lymph system vessel drains lymph from the right upper limb and most of the head and neck? Right lymphatic duct. 9. Mast cells release ________, a molecule that quickly stimulates the inflammatory response. Histamine. 10. Cell-mediated immunity in the adaptive defense system involves what type of cell?T cells, specifically cytotoxic T cells (CD8+). 11. _________________ are molecules, usually surface proteins, that stimulate the production of antibodies. Antigens. 12. The thymus gland is most active during _________ (hint – phase of lifespan) Childhood. 13. What two families of molecules do cytotoxic (killer) T-cells release once they attach themselves to a target cell?Perforins and granzymes. 14. When monocytes mature, leave the blood, and migrate into interstitial spaces, they are called ___________ Macrophages. 15. What is the primary role of interferons?Interferons inhibit viral replication and stimulate the immune response by activating natural killer cells and macrophages. MODULE 12 (Chapters 18-19) 1. What muscle is responsible for regulating the slow, steady movement of chyme out of the stomach and into the small intestine? Pyloric sphincter. 2 Absorption of water is the principal function of which part of the digestive system? The large intestine (colon). 3. What basic role does the pancreas play in digestion? The pancreas produces digestive enzymes (e.g., amylase, lipase, and proteases) and bicarbonate, which neutralizes stomach acid in the small intestine. 4. People that are lactose intolerant typically no longer produce the enzyme lactase (the enzyme that breaks down lactose). Where is lactase normally produced? In the small intestine, specifically by the cells of the intestinal lining. 5. Would oxygen levels be higher in blood arriving at the lungs or leaving the lungs? Oxygen levels would be higher in blood leaving the lungs. 6. Long-term smokers can develop emphysema which destroys connective tissue fibers in the lungs leading to a loss in elasticity. Would loss of elasticity primarily impair inhalation or exhalation? Loss of elasticity would primarily impair exhalation. 7. Boyle's law states that as the volume of a container (like a lung) increases, the pressure inside that container (like a lung) __________ Decreases. 8. Unlike inspiration, expiration (exhalation) is a passive act because no muscular contractions are involved. Expiration, however, occurs more efficiently because of which two factors? Elastic recoil of the lungs. Relaxation of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles. 9. What role do G cells play in the stomach? G cells produce and release gastrin, a hormone that stimulates the secretion of gastric acid (HCl) by parietal cells. 10. The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II. The primary function of type II alveolar cells is to ________. Produce surfactant, which reduces surface tension and prevents alveoli from collapsing 11. Which component of the nervous system is involved in the reflexes that are primarily responsible for regulating motility by peristalsis? The enteric nervous system. 12. ______________ is the process by which the products of digestion leave the lumen of the GI tract and enter the blood or lymph.GI tract and enter the blood or lymph. Absorption. 13. Most chemical digestion occurs in the ________________ (hint – name of GI tract organ) Small intestine, specifically in the duodenum. 14. How do we increase lung volume in order to facilitate inhalation?By contracting the diaphragm (flattening it) and external intercostal muscles, which expand the thoracic cavity and lower the pressure inside the lungs, drawing air in. 15. All of the following structures are found in the conducting zone of the respiratory system except one. Which of the following is not a structure in the conducting zone? (hint – to answer this question correctly know the structures found in the conducting zone so you can recognize the one in the list that is not a conducting zone structure)Alveoli MODULE 13 (Chapters 21 & 23) 1. In the first phase of ejaculation, the smooth muscle in the walls of the vase deferens move semen into the urethra. This process is called _____________. Emission. 2. What blood vessel carries unfiltered blood out of and away from the glomerulus? Efferent arteriole. 3. Following ovulation, the ruptured and empty _______________ quickly converts into a ________________ Graafian follicle converts into a corpus luteum. 4. Why does a newly created zygote/embryo need to begin producing human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) immediately? HCG maintains the corpus luteum, which continues to produce progesterone to sustain the uterine lining for implantation. 5. What happens to FSH levels during the follicular phase? FSH levels increase initially to stimulate follicle development and then begin to decrease as estrogen levels rise. 6. What does glomerular filtration rate (GFR) measure? GFR measures the rate at which blood is filtered by the glomeruli in the kidneys. 7. About how long does it take for an immature spermatid to complete maturation to a functional sperm cell? About 64-72 days. 8. Hormonal forms of birth control work by tricking the body into thinking it is in the luteal phase of a menstrual cycle. How would this be effective at preventing pregnancy? High levels of progesterone and estrogen suppress FSH and LH, preventing follicular development and ovulation. 9. Ovulation occurs due to a surge in the concentration of ________ which is triggered when levels of estrogen produced by the __________________ reach sufficiently high concentrations. LH (luteinizing hormone), produced by the maturing follicle. 10. The interstitial cells (aka Leydig cells) of the testes produce____________ Testosterone. 11. In males, erections are caused by a __________ reflex, and ejaculation is caused by a ____________ reflex. (Hint – the answers indicate which division of the nervous system is involved in the reflex) Erections: Parasympathetic reflex.Ejaculation: Sympathetic reflex. 12. Which of the following types of capillaries would be found in close association with the tubular portion of a cortical nephron? (Hint – choose the proper term for this type of capillary from a possible list of 4 choices). Peritubular capillaries. 13. What is one major difference between the urethra in males versus females? The male urethra is longer and serves both the urinary and reproductive systems, whereas the female urethra is shorter and serves only the urinary system. 14. Consider the three mechanisms/processes for transporting substances between the blood and the nephron. Which of these process moves substances out of the blood and into the nephron? (hint: may be one or more than one correct answer) Filtration (in the glomerulus).Secretion (in the tubules). 15. What molecule is primarily removed from filtrate in the collecting duct of a nephron in order to regulate urine concentration?Water, regulated by antidiuretic hormone (ADH).