Indian Constitution Past Paper PDF

Q. No. QUESTIONS 1. ‘Power of Parliament to modify the rights conferred by this part in their application to forces etc.’ is the basis of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution? a) Article 32 b) Article 33 c) Article 33(1) d) Article 32(1) 2. In which of the following respe...

Q. No. QUESTIONS 1. ‘Power of Parliament to modify the rights conferred by this part in their application to forces etc.’ is the basis of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution? a) Article 32 b) Article 33 c) Article 33(1) d) Article 32(1) 2. In which of the following respects the Directive Principles differ from the Fundamental Rights? a) The Directives are not enforceable in the courts and do not create any justiciable rights in favor of individuals b) The Directives require to be implemented by legislation, and so long as there is no law carrying out the policy laid down in a Directive, neither the state nor an individual can violate any existing law or legal right under the color of following a Directive c) The Courts are not competent to compel the Government to carry out any Directive or to make any law for that purpose d) All of them 3 Which of the following interpretations of the Constitution regarding the utility of Directives is/are found to be correct? I. Even though the implementation of a Directive Principle may cause hardship to a few individuals, it should be upheld in the larger interests of the community. II. In view of the absolute prohibition of consumption of liquor in Article 47, there cannot be any fundamental right to manufacture and sell intoxicating liquor. a) I and II b) Neither I nor II c) Only I d) Only II 4 Which kinds of justice have been mentioned in Article 38 in Part IV of the Indian Constitution? a) Social b) Economic c) Political d) All of them 5 According to Article 39 of the Indian Constitution the State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing: I. That the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood. II. That the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good. III. That there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women. a) I, II and III b) II and III c) I and III d) I and II 6 Which of the following directives has been given the Supreme Court for the welfare of the children according to clauses (e), (f) of Article 39 of the Indian Constitution? a) The Children should not be employed in hazardous jobs in factories for manufacture of match boxes and fire works b) Positive steps should be taken for the welfare of such children as well as for improving the quality of their life c) The employer of children below 14 years must comply with the provisions of the child labour Act providing for compensation, employment of their parents/ guardians and their education d) All of them 7 ‘Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases’ is an essence of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution? a) Article 40 b) Article 41 c) Article 39 d) Article 42 8 Which of the following statements regarding ‘Right to education is/are found to be correct? I. The duty of the State, under this directive is not only to establish educational institutions but also to effectively secure the right to education, by admitting students to the seats available at such institutions, by admitting candidates found eligible according to some rational principle. II. Even though this right is not a fundamental right and is not judicially enforceable as such, once the State, by legislative or administrative actions, provides facilities for education, its action must conform to the standard of equality and rationality underlying Article 14 of the Indian Constitution. a) Only I b) Only II c) I and II d) None of them 9 Living, wage etc. for workers have been mentioned in Article of Indian Constitution. a) 41 b) 43 c) 43A d) 42 10 ‘Uniform Civil code for the citizens’ is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution? a) Article 43 b) Article 43A c) Article 44 d) Article 45 11 Which of the following Articles says “The State shall endeavor to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years”? a) Article 44 b) Article 45 c) Article 43A d) Article 46 12 According to Article 47 of the Indian Constitution, it is the duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health. Which of the following statements regarding public health is/are correct? I. Article 47 makes improvement of public health a primary duty of the State. II. In case of need, the local authority should approach the State Government to grant loan or aid, and the latter should supply the money required in view of primary duty of the ‘State’ under Article 47. a) I and II b) Only II c) Only I d) None 13 Which of the following Articles is associated with Fundamental Duties? a) Article 50 b) Article 51 c) Article 49 d) Article 51A 14 Fundamental Duties have been added in the Constitution by which of the following Amendment Acts? a) 40th Amendment Act b) 42nd Amendment Act c) 48th Amendment Act d) 44th Amendment Act 15 Which of the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties is/are found to be correct? I. Fundamental Duties are not enforceable by mandamus or any other legal remedy. II. If the state seeks to promote any of these duties, that can be done only through methods permitted by and in consonance with the constitution. a) I and II b) Only I c) Only II d) Neither I nor II 16 Which of the following directions has/have been issued by the Supreme Court to the Central Government to take a number of steps to improve the environment? a) To direct all educational institutions throughout Indian to give weekly lessons in the first ten classes, relating to the protecting and improvement of the nature b) To get books written for the said purpose and to distribute them free of cost c) To introduce short term courses for training up teachers who teach this subject d)All of them 17 The Fundamental Rights as given in the Constitution are: ( a) Subject to reasonable restrictions (b) Absolute (c) Inalienable (d) None of the options 18 The right to constitutional remedies for enforcement of Fundamental Rights is given in: (a) Article 13 (b) Article 14 (c) Article 19d (d) Article 32 19 A boy, aged 11 years, has been compelled to work in a factory making match boxes. Which Fundamental Right is violated in this case? (a) Right to Equality (b) Right against Exploitation (c) Right to Freedom (d) Right to Freedom of Religion. 20 The Right to Freedom of Religion is included in: (a) Articles 25 to 27 (b) Articles 25 to 28 (c) Articles 26 to 29 (d) Articles 22 to 28 21 The concept of Directive Principles has been borrowed from: (a) Irish Constitution (b) Canadian Constitution (c) Russian Constitution American Constitution 22 The Fundamental Rights: (a) Were added by 42nd amendment (b) Were added by 44th amendment (c) Formed a part of original Constitution (d) Were added by Parliament in 1952 23 Which one of the following amendments established the importance of Directive Principles over certain Fundamental Rights? (a) 24th amendment (b) 25th amendment (c) 42nd amendment (d) 44th amendment 24 Freedom of Residence under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution is available in which of the following clauses? a) 19 (1) (e) b) 19 (1) D c) 19 (1) B d) 19 (1) C 25 Directive Principles have been included in the Constitution to achieve the ideals of: (a) Individual liberty (b) Political liberty (c) Democracy (d) Welfare state 26 Under which Articles have the Directive Principles of State Policy been mentioned in the Constitution? (a) Articles 37-50 (b) Articles 38-51 (c) Articles 36-51 (d) Articles 36-52 27 Consider the following statements: The Indian Constitution is (1) unwritten Constitution (2) written Constitution (3) largely based on Government of India Act, 1935 a) 2 and 1 are correct b) 2 and 3 are correct c) 1 and 2 are correct d) 1 and 3 are correct. 28 One of the Directive Principles is that the State shall introduce free and compulsory education for all children up to the age of (a) 10 years (b) 10 years (c) 06 years (d) 14 years 29 The text of the Preamble of the Constitution of India aims to secure: a) fundamental rights to all individuals b) fundamental duties to citizen of India c) dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation d) security of service to Government Servant. 30 At present, there are_________ Freedoms under Article 19. (a) Seven (b) Six (c) Eight d) Ten 31 ‘Justice, social, economic and political’ is enshrined in: a) Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India b) Writs issued by the Supreme Court of India c) Preamble to the Constitution of India d) Directive Principle of State Policy taken into account making enactments. 32 Consider the following statements with reference to the term ‘secularism’: 1. Secularism means that the State has no recognized religion of State 2. Secularism means that the State treats all the religions equally 3. Secularism means that the State regulates the relation of man with God. Which of these statements are correct – a) 1, 2, and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3 33 Which of the following said that “In any event, whatever system of Government we may establish here must fit in with the temper of the people and be acceptable to them”: a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar c) D. D. Basu d) M. V. Pylee. 34 Which one among the following is a fundamental duty of the citizens under the Constitution of India? a) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighboring countries b) To protect monuments of national importance c) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so d) To know more and more about the history of India. 35 Find the odd one out. (a) Right to Equality (b) Right to Property (c) Cultural and Educational Rights (d) Right against Exploitation 36 Which of the following statement is true with respect to the Preamble? a) It is the part of the Constitution b) It is not the part of the Constitution c) Still this question is to be decided by the court d) None of the options 37 Which of the following feature is not borrowed from United Kingdom: a) The Cabinet system of Government b) The Parliamentary type of Government c) Bicameral Parliament d) Written Constitution. 38 The feature ‘power of judicial review’ is borrowed from which of the following country: a) UK b) USA c) Canada d) Ireland. 39 Which of the following Articles describe about the person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens: a) Article 5 b) Article 7 c) Article 8 d) Article 9. 40 The expression ‘every person’ in Article 5 includes: a) a prisoner b) member of armed forces c) persons living within the territory of India d) all of the options 41 Article 6 enshrines the provision conferring Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan. Which one of the following provision is incorrect? a) he or either of his parents or any of his grand-parents was born in India as defined in the Government of India Act, 1935 b) such person has so migrated before 19 July, 1948. c) such person has so migrated on or after the 19 July, 1948, he has been registered as a citizen d) such person has got married in India. 42 The Fundamental rights secured under Article 32 to the individual are: a) limited to the State action only b) meant to protect persons against the conduct of private persons c) meant to protect persons against the action of foreigner d) all of the options are correct. 43 The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in which part of the Constitution? (a) Part II (b) Part III (c) Part IV (d) Part V 44 Which of the following are included in the concept of ‘the State’ under Article 12: a) Railway Board and Electricity Board b) Judiciary c) University d) all of the options. 45 Which provision of the Constitution of India has been described as the soul of the Constitution? (a) Fundamental Rights (b) Directive Principles of State Policy (c) Preamble (d) Right to Constitutional Remedies 46 How many Fundamental Duties were incorporated in Article 51-A, by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976? (a) Ten (b) Nine (c) Two (d) Twenty 47 Under Article 13(1) pre-Constitution laws: a) become completely void b) not void c) become void (from the date of the commencement of the Constitution) insofar as they are inconsistent with the fundamental rights d) none of the options 48 Article 13(2) : a) includes law amending the Constitution b) does not include a law amending the Constitution c) states that the State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the fundamental rights d) none of the options. 49 The controversial 42nd Amendment was passed in: (a) 1974 (b) 1976 (c) 1978 (d) 1980 50 Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law to: a) All persons living within the territory of India b) All Indian citizens living in India c) All persons domiciled in India d) None of the options 51 A new Chapter IV A on Fundamental Duties was inserted in the Indian Constitution in? (a) 1972 (b) 1976 (c) 1980 (d) 1984 52 Which of the following rights are conferred to Indian citizens under protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech etc.? a) Right to assemble peaceably and without arms b) Right to form associations or unions c) Right to move freely throughout the territory of India d) All of them 53 Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct? I. The rights conferred by Article 19 the Indian Constitution are not available to any person who is not and cannot be a ‘Citizen of India’. II. A person cannot complain of the infringement of any of the rights conferred by Article 19, if his citizenship of India has been validly terminated by law made by Parliament in pursuance of the power conferred by Article 11. III. The National Awards are violative of the principles of equality. a) I and II b) I, II and III c) II and III d) I and III 54 How many times has the President declared financial emergency in the country so far? (a) Once (b) Twice (c) Thrice (d) Never 55 Which of the following constitutes a faecet of the freedom of the Press? I. The right to publish includes the right to publish not only its own views but also those of its correspondents. II. The right to circulate refers to the matter to be circulated as well as the volume of circulation. III. To require a newspaper to reduce its space for advertisements would directly affect its circulation since it would be bound to raise its price. a) I and II b) I, II and III c) II and III d) I and III 56 Clause (1) B of Article 19 of the Indian Constitution is associated with which of the following? a) Right to freedom of expression b) Freedom of assembly c) Freedom to form association d) Freedom to practice any profession 57 Right to Freedom of Association is guaranteed by which of the following clauses? a) 19 (1) A b) 19 (1) B c) 19 (1) C d) 19 (1) D 58 Right to Freedom of Association is the ordinary right which is enjoyed by all citizens to form associations. This right state that: I. The word ‘form’ includes not only the right to start an association but also to continue it, or refuse to be a member of an association, if he so desires. II. It also includes the right that composition of a society shall not be so altered by law as to introduce members other than those who voluntarily joined to form the society, without the consent of members of the original association. Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct? a) Only I b) Only II c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II 59 Which one of the following is a Human Right as well as Fundamental Right under the Constitution of India? a) Right to information b) Right to Education c) Right to work d) Right to Housing 60 Which article of the Indian constitution includes fundamental duties to the Indian Citizens? a) Article 50A b) Article 50B c) Article 51A d) Article 51B 61 India is a republic because: a) The head of the state is not a hereditary monarch. b) Constitution rests on the people’s will c) The leader of the majority party becomes the Prime Minister d) None of the options 62 Which of the following statement is true? 1) Constitution of India does not accept strict separation of power 2) Constitution of India does accept strict separation of power 3) Constitution of India prescribes for independent judiciary 4) Preamble of the Indian Constitution is enforceable in the court of law a) 1,4,2 b) 1,3 c) 1,2,4 d) 1,3,4 63 Sovereignty lies in a) Parliament in India b) People of India c) Constitution of India d) Preamble to the Constitution of India 64 Which of the following is correctly matched? a) Republic: Head of the state is hereditary monarch. b) Sovereign: Constitution rests on the people’s will. c) Democratic: Constitution does not recognize legal supremacy of another country. d) Secular: State is without religion of its own. 65 Directive Principles of State Policy is not enforceable but: 1)These principles are fundamental in governance of the country, 2) It is the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws 3) Laws, include all normative exercise of power including the decision making 4) Are subsidiary to fundamental rights Choose the correct one: a) 1,2 b) 1,2,3,4 c) 1,2,3 d) 1,2,4 66 Constitution of India was adopted on: a) 26th January, 1950 b) 24th November 1950 c) 15th August, 1947 d) 26th November 1949 67 Which of the following fundamental rights cannot be suspended during proclamation of emergency: a) Article 20 & 21 b) Article 16 & 19 c) Article 18 & 28 d) Article 15 & 14 68 Which of the following Article deals with amendment of Indian Constitution: a) Article 362 b) Article 368 c) Article 367 d) Article 363 69 The Preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation because it: a) Uses value loaded words b) Contains the real objective and philosophy of the Constitution makers c) It is a source of power and limitation d) It gives an exhaustive list of basic features of the constitution. 70 Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed? (a) Article 359 (b) Article 356 (c) Article 323 (d) Article 360 71 The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens have been enumerated from: (a) Articles 12 to 35 of the Constitution (b) Articles 13 to 36 of the Constitution (c) Articles 15 to 39 of the Constitution (d) Articles 16 to 40 of the Constitution 72 Which among the following parts of constitution of India, includes the concept of welfare states? a) Preamble b) Fundamental rights c) Directive principles d) Fourth Schedule 73 In which among the following parts of Constitution of India are enshrined the Fundamental Duties? a) Part III b) Part IIIA c) Part IVA d) Part IV 74 Identify the Article of the Constitution which abolished untouchability? (a) Article 16 ( b) Article 17 (c) Article 19 (d) Article 15 75 The President of India can proclaim National Emergency (a) On the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister (b) On the advice of the Speaker (c) On the advice of the leader of the ruling party or set of parties in power (d) At his own discretion 76 We borrowed the Concept of Fundamental Duties from the: (a) American Constitution (b) Irish constitution (c) Canadian Constitution (d) USSR Constitution 77 Part II of the Constitution deals with: (a) The Union and its Territory (b) Citizenship (c) Tribunals (d) Elections 78 Which part of the Indian Constitution reflects the ideology of Gandhi (a) Fundamental Rights (b) Fundamental Duties (c) Directive Principles (d) Preamble 79 Equal pay for equal work for both men and women has been laid down in the Indian Constitution as one of the (a) Fundamental Rights (b). (b) Fundamental Duties. (c) (c) Guidelines in the Preamble. (d) (d) Directive Principles of State Policy. 80 The authority to alter the boundaries of States in India rests with the: (a) State Government (b) Parliament (c) Prime Minister (d) President 81 To produce the Constitution, the Constituent Assembly took: (a) 2 years 11 months and 17 days (b) 3 years 10 months and 20 days (c) 4 years 11 months and 17 days (d) 5 years 6 months and 5 days 82 When a financial emergency is proclaimed (a) Union budget will not be presented (b) Salaries and allowances of any class of employees may be reduced (c) Repayment of government debts will stop (d) Payment of salaries to public servants will be postponed 83 The terms: ‘Secular, Socialist and Integrity’ were added to the Preamble in (a) 1979 (b) 1977 (c)1976 (d) 1975 84 Who is the custodian of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Indian Constitution? (a) Parliament (b) President (c) Supreme Court (d) All of the options 85 The correct nomenclature of India according to the Preamble is : (a) Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic (b) Sovereign, Democratic Republic (c) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic (d) Sovereign Secular Socialist Democracy 86 How many types of Emergency have been visualized in the Constitution of India? (a) Four (b) Three (c) One (d) Two 87 How long did the Constituent Assembly take to finally pass the Constitution? (a) About 6 months in 1949 (b) About 2 years since Aug 15, 1947 (c) Exactly a year since Nov 26, 1948 (d) About 3 years since Dec 9, 1946 88 Which of the following is correct regarding the Indian Constitution? (a) It is completely based on British Constitution. (b) It is original (c) It is made only on the basis of Government of India Act, 1935 (d) It is a mixture of several Constitutions. 89 Which among the following is not a Fundamental Right? (a) Right to strike (b) Right against exploitation (c) Right to equality (d) Right to freedom of religion 90 Welfare State is well defined in which of the following? (a) Indian Preamble (b) Directive Principles (c) Schedule VII of the Constitution (d) Fundamental Rights 91 Which of the following is enforceable in a court of law? (a) Fundamental Rights (b) Fundamental Duties (c) Directive Principles (d) Preamble 92 Interpretation of Indian Constitution is based on the spirit of the: (a) Preamble (b) Fundamental Rights (c) Directive Principles of State Policy (d) Fundamental Duties 93 When there is a conflict between Fundamental Rights (Part III) and the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) of the Constitution of India, the _______ will prevail. (a) Directive Principles ( b) Fundamental Rights (c) Harmonious Interpretation of DPSP and Fundamental Rights ( d) Neither 94 Protection under Article can be claimed by an institution only if it is established by a religious or linguistic minority. (a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 29 (d) 30 95 The right to move court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is itself a guaranteed Fundamental Right. (a) High (b) Subordinate (c) Quasi-Judicial (d) Supreme 96 Assertion :-The Preamble of the Constitution starts with ?We, the people of India? Reason :It implies that the Constitution is created by the entire nation. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true 97 Which one of the Directive Principles is Gandhian? (a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women (b) Organization of village Panchayats as effective units of local self-government (c) Protection of workers, especially children (d) None of the options 98 Assertion: -The Chapter on the Fundamental Rights was framed upon the model of American Constitution. Reason:-Fundamental rights are enforceable. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true 99 No person can be employed in factories or mines unless he is above the age of (a) 12 years. (b) 14 years. (c) 18 years. (d) 20 years. 100 A Presidential proclamation can remain in force for: (a) Three months (b) Two months (c) Six months (d) Till the President revokes it 101 Which portion of the Indian Constitution reflects the mind and ideals of its framers? (a) Preamble (b) Fundamental Rights (c) Directive Principles (d) Emergency Provisions 102 The doctrine of Double jeopardy is mentioned in Article? (a) 20 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16 103 Which right has been deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights and has become a constitution right? (a) Right to Equality (b) Right to Freedom (c) Right to Property (d) Right to Constitutional Remedies 104 Assertion :-The Constitution of India is often termed as a borrowed document. Reason :-The concept of Rule of Law is borrowed from UK. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true 105 Assertion :-Secularism is a basic feature of the Constitution of India in the sense that the State should be neutral to the different religions. Reason :-One of the Directive Principles of State Policy states that uniform civil code may be implemented. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true 106 Assertion :-In the Constitution of India the unity and fraternity of the people of India, professing numerous faiths, has been sought to be achieved by enshrining the ideal of a secular State. Reason :-The ideal of a Secular State means that the state protects all religions equally and does not itself uphold any religion as the state religion. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true 107 Assertion: -If a person feels that his Fundamental Rights have been infringed by a State, he can approach Supreme Court for his right. Reason: -Fundamental Rights are justiciable. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true 108 Assertion: -For any violation of any of the Directive Principles of State Policy, the affected party cannot move the court. Reason: -The Directives Principles are not justiciable. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A  (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true 109 Assertion :- Article 25 stipulates that all persons have the right to entertain any religious belief and to propagate it. Reason :-India is a secular state (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true UNIT - 2 ANSWERS (​Highlight the right options​) 1 The provisions concerning the elections of the members of the Rajya Sabha have been influenced by the Constitution of: (a) South Africa (b) Switzerland (c) U.S.A. (d) Government of India Act, 1935 2 The tenure of the Council of Ministers lasts: (a) As long as it enjoys the support of the electorate (b) As long as it enjoys the support of the majority of the members of the Parliament (c) Six years (d) Five years. 3 Which one of the following is the popularly elected House of the Parliament? (a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha (c) Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha (d) None of the options 4 The seat of a Member of Parliament can be declared vacant if he absents himself from the House without permission fora period of: (a) 60 days (b) Two years (c) Six months (d) One year 5 The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is: (a) 250 (b) 245 (c) 240 (d) 200 6 In order to be elected a member of Council of States a person must not be less than: (a) 30 years. (b) 25 years (c) 21 years (d) 35 years 7 The Estimates Committee of the Parliament consists of members of only: (a) Rajya Sabha (b) Lok Sabha (c) Both the Houses (d) None of the above 8 How many times at least has the Parliament to meet in a year? (a) Thrice (b) Twice (c) Once (d) Multiple 9 Joint sittings of the two Houses of Parliament are presided over by the (a) President of India (b) Speaker of Lok Sabha (c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (d) An MP nominated by the President 10 The Governor of a State is appointed by: (a) The Prime Minister (b) The President (c) The President on the recommendation of the Central Council of Ministers headed by Prime Minister (d) The President on the advice of the Chief Minister of the State 11 Who in empowered to suspend the operation of the Fundamental Rights? (a) Supreme Court (b) President (c) The Cabinet (d) Parliament 12 The salaries and allowances of Union Ministers are determined by the (a) President of India (b) Prime Minister of India (c) Council of Ministers (d) Parliament 13 Which of the following part of the Constitution deals with elections? (a) X (b) XV (c) XX (d) XVI 14 The normal term of the Governor’s office: (a) Depends on the tenure of the State Legislature (b) Is 3 years (c) Is 4 years (d) Is 5 years 15 The President can dissolve Lok Sabha at the advice/request of whom of the following before the completion of the tenure? (a) At the written request of the members (b) At the advice of the Prime Minister (c) At the written request of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (d) At the advice of the Vice-President 16 The minimum age limit for a Governor is: (a) 30 years (b) 32 years (c) 35 years (d) 45 years 17 Subject to the provisions of the constitution, according to Article 73, of the Indian Constitution the executive power of the Union shall extend: I. To the matters with respect to which Parliament has power to make laws. II. To the exercise of such rights, authority and jurisdiction as are exercisable by the Government of India by virtue of any treaty or agreement. Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct? a) I and II ​b) Only I c) Only II d) None of them 18 President of India can be impeached for a) Violation of Constitution of India b) Violation of International Obligation c) Violation of Legal Rights d) All of the options 19 Which one of the following is not a qualification for election as president? 1) He must have completed the age of 35 years 2) He must be qualified for election as a member of house of people 3) He must not be more than age of 65 years 4) He must not be an acting minister either for union or for any state Choose the correct one: a) 1,2 b) 3,4 c) 2,4 d) 1,4 20 The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the (a) Prime Minister​ (b) Vice- President (c) Chief Minister (d) Chief Justice 21 Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the structure of the Union Government? (a) It is Unitary (b) It is Federal (c) It is Federal in peace times and Unitary in the Emergencies (d) It is Unitary in peace times and Federal in Emergencies 22 What is the age at which an Indian can become a candidate for Presidentship? (a) 45 (b) 65 (c) 60 (d) 35 23 Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India? (a) Chief of the Army (b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (c) Chief Justice of India (d) Chief of the Air Force 24 Who appoints the Prime Minister of India? (a) Lok Sabha (b) President (c) Parliament (d) Citizens of India 25 In India, a citizen who has attained the age of has a right to vote irrespective of his religion, race, caste, colour, creed, sex, place of birth, etc. (a) 21 years (b) 20 years (c) 18 years 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys 26 Chief Minister of a State is responsible to (a) Prime Minister (b) Rajya Sabha ​(c) Legislative Assembly​ (d) Governor 27 The Governor of a State is: (a) Head of State of the State he is appointed as Governor (b) Head of Government (c) President's agent (d) Non-political figure 28 Who acts as the President of India when neither the President nor the Vice President is available? (a) Senior most Governor of a State (b) Chief Justice of India (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha (d) Auditor General of India 29 In India, political parties are given recognition by (a) Election Commission​ (b) Speaker of Lok Sabha (c) President (d) Law Commission 30 Judicial Review function of the Supreme Court means the power to (a) Review the functioning of judiciary in the country (b) Undertake periodic review of the Constitution. (c) Examine the constitutional validity of the laws (d) Review its own judgement 31 The Chief Justice and other Judges of the High Court are appointed by the (a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court (b) Chief Minister of the concerned state (c) Governor of the concerned state (​d) President 32 Which is the highest court of appeal in India? (a)​Supreme Court ​( b) President (c) High Court (d) Privy Council 33 Formally all the executive powers of the Union Government are vested in (a) The President of India (b) The Cabinet Ministers only (c) The Prime Minister of India (d) The Union Council of Ministers 34 Judicial Review signifies that the Supreme Court (a) Can impeach the President (b) Can declare emergency (c) Can review cases decided by the High Courts. (d) Has final authority over all cases 35 Public interest litigation applies to any case of public injury arising from (a) The violation of the law (b) The violation of a constitutional provision (c) The breach of any public duty (d) All the options 36 Indian Constitution provides for a ______ system. (a) Presidential (b) Unicameral (c) ​Parliamentary (d) Unitary 37 The Chief Election Commissioner of India is: (a) Elected by the Parliament (b) Nominated by the Prime Minister (c) ​Appointed by the President (d) None of the options 38 Who among the following are not appointed by the President? (a) Governor of State (b) Chief Justice and Judges of High Courts (c) ​Vice-President Chief Justice and Judges of the Supreme Court. 39 Which of the following is not a prescribed qualification for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court? (a) He should have worked as a Judge of a High Court for a minimum period of five years (b) He should not be more than 55 years of age (c) He should have worked as an advocate in any High Court for a minimum period of ten years (d) He should be an eminent jurist in the opinion of the President 40 What is the main purpose of Panchayati Raj? (a) To increase agricultural production (b) To create employment (c) To make people politically conscious (d) To make people participate in development administration 41 If the Parliament passes a law which is against the Constitution, it can be declared as unconstitutional by the (a) Election Commission (b) Chief Justice of India (c) President Supreme Court 42 What should be the minimum strength, of the elected members in a State Legislative Assembly? (a) 250 (b) 500 (c) 300 (a) (d) 60 43 To ensure impartiality, the retired Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court are debarred from practicing law (a) In any Criminal Court (b) In any court other than State High Courts (​c) In any court of India In any court other than the Supreme Court 44 The final authority to interpret the constitution (a) Parliament (​b) Supreme Court (c) Attorney General (d) High Court 45 Which of the following conditions of Presidents’ office is/ are found to be correct? I. The President shall not be a member of either house of Parliament. II. The President shall not hold any other office of profit. III. The emoluments and allowance of the President shall not be diminished during his term of office. a) I, II and III​ b) Only II c) I and III d) II and III 46 Who among the following decides if a particular bill is a Money Bill or not? (a) President (​b) Speaker of Lok Sabha (c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (d) Finance Minister 47 When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charges shall be preferred by___________ of Parliament. a) Lok Sabha b) Rajya Sabha c) Either House d) None of them 48 Which of the following statements regarding the mandatory time limit of Presidential election according to Article 62 of the Indian Constitution is/are found to be correct? I. The election of the President must be completed within the time fixed by the Article and there is no provision for extension of this time limit. II. Because of the rigidity of the time limit, the election must be held and completed before the expiration of the outgoing President, notwithstanding the fact that at the time of such election, the Legislative Assembly of a state has been dissolved. a) Only I b) Only II c) Neither I nor II d) I and II 49 Judges of High Courts are appointed by the (a) President. (b) Governor. (c) Chief Justice of India (d) Prime minister on the advice of Council of ministers 50 When the President is unable to discharge his functions owing to absence, illness or any other cause, ______________ shall discharge his functions until the date on which the President resumes his duties. a) Speaker b​) Vice President c) Chief Justice of Supreme Court d) Prime Minister 51 Who administers the oath of office to the President? (a) The Prime Minister (b) The Vice-President (c) The Chief Election Commissioner (d) The Chief-Justice of India 52 The election of the Parliament is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution? a) Article 52 b) Article 53 c) Article 54 d) Article 53(1) 53 The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of: a) The elected members of both Houses of Parliament b) The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States c) The members of State legislative Assemblies, councils and All M.P.’s d) Both (A) and (B) 54 It the President wants to resign; he has to address the letter of resignation to the: (a) Prime Minister (b) Vice-President (c) Speaker (d) Chief Justice of India 55 Which of the following methods is adopted for the election of the President of India? a) Direct b) Indirect c) Proportional Representation through single transferable vote d) Both (A) and (C) 56 If the office of the President falls vacant, except due to the expiry of his term, it is to be filled within: (a) One year (b) One month (c) Three months (d) Six months 57 Rajya Sabha enjoys more powers than the Lok Sabha in case of (a) Money Bills. (b) Non-Money Bills. (c) Setting up of new all-India services. (d) Amendment of the Constitution. 58 The ‘Eligibility for re-election’ of President is the basis of the Indian Constitution. a) Article 56 b) Article 57 c) Article 58 d) Article 54 59 The meetings of the State Legislative Council are presided by the ______ a) Deputy Speaker b) Speaker c) Chairman d) Governor 60 Which among the following constitutional amendment act, reduced the age of voting from 21 years to 18 years? a) 59th Amendment Act b) 60th Amendment Act c)61st Amendment Act d)62nd Amendment Act 61 How many members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President of India? a) 2 ​b) 12​ c) 10 d) 15 62 The Parliament of India is consisted of _______: a) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha b) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President c) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, President and Prime Minister d) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Council of Ministers 63 Which of the following is not a qualification for being a member of Parliament? a) Must be a graduate with 55% of marks​ b) Must be an Indian citizen c) Must be minimum of 25 years of age d) Must not hold any office of profit 64 Which of the following is a mandatory qualification for being a member of Parliament of the House of People? a) Must be a graduate with 55% of marks b) Must be 25 years of age c) Must hold a office of profit d) None of the options 65 Which of the following is a ground of disqualification for member of Parliament? a) If he defects and commits an offence under anti-defection law b) If he acquires shares in a private company c) If he earns money from selling of any books d) None of the options 66 Which of the following is not a ground for disqualifying a member of Parliament ? a) If he is convicted and sentenced for 10 years imprisonment b) If he holds an office of profit c) If he voluntarily gives up the citizenship of India d) If he earns money from selling of any books 67 In case of disqualification of a member of Parliament, the President shall consult whom ? a) Prime Minister b) Council of Minister c) Chief Justice of India d) Election Commission of India 68 The Maximum permissible life of the ordinance issued by the President under Article 123 is a) 6 months ​b) 6 weeks​ c) 7 months 2 weeks d) 1 year 69 The ordinance may be promulgated by the President of India when a) The National Emergency is in force b) There is armed rebellion c) The houses of Parliament is not in session d) None of the options 70 The President can issue pardon under which provision of the Constitution? a) 53 b) 65 c) 72 d) 52 71 The President of India under article 72 can a) Pardon b) Remit any sentence c) Commute any sentence d) All of the options. 72 Under Article 72, the President can not a) Declare a person innocent b) Pardon any person c) Suspend the sentence awarded to a person d) All of the above 73 The power of pardoning with respect to punishment or sentence by Court Martial can be exercised by: a) President b) Governor c) Chief Justice of India d) Chief Justice of the state where court martial was conducted 74 Who is the ex-officio chairman of the Council of State? a) President of India b) Vice-President of India c) Prime Minister d) Minister for Parliamentary affairs 75 The Indian President is a) Head of the State b) Head of the Government c) De facto Head of the Parliament d) De facto Head of the Coast Guard 76 Which of the following statement with respect to the office of Governor is true ? a) The Governor is the Vice-Chancellor of all State Universities b) The Governor can impose National emergency c) The Govern can issue pardon d) None of the options 77 Which of the following statements with respect to the office of Governor is true ? a) The Governor can withhold assent to a bill passed by the State Legislature and refer it to the President b) The Governor can declare a person to be innocent c) The Governor can appoint the Chief Justice of the High Court d) The Governor is the Vice-Chancellor of all State Universities 78 Which of the following statements with respect to the office of Governor is true? a) The Governor need to be minimum of 65 years of age b) The Governor can be impeached by the Parliament c) The Governor may be transferred or removed by the President d) The Governor needs to be a PhD holder 79 Which of the following statements is correct? a) The Vice-President is impeached through a motion passed by half of the state legislatures b)The Vice-President is removed through a motion passed by Council of State and approved by House of People c) The Vice-President is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces d) The Vice-President is the sole authority who can impose National Emergency 80 Who is appointed as the acting President, in absence of the Vice-President? a) Prime Minister b) Home Minister c) Chief Justice of High Court of Delhi d) Chief Justice of India 81 How many Presidents have been impeached in India ? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 ​d) 0 82 How many Judges of the Supreme Court of India have been impeached? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 ​d) 0 83 Who is the current (14th ) President of India ? a) Ram Nath Kovind​ b) Pranab Mukherjee c) Pratibha Patil d) KR Narayanan 84 Who was the first President of India ? a) Dr. BR Ambedkar ​b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad​ c) VV Giri d) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan 85 What is the strength of the Supreme Court of India ? ​a) 30 Judges and 1 Chief Justice​ b) 29 Judges and 1 Chief Justice c) 6 Judges and 1 Chief Justice d) 127 Judges and 1 Chief Justice 86 Who is the current (47th) Chief Justice of India ? ​a) Sharad Arvind Bobde​ b) Rajan Gogoi c) Dipak Misra d) JS Khehar 1. Data theft includes: (a) unauthorized attempts to bypass the security mechanisms of an information system or network. (b) use of information and communication technologies to support hostile behaviour. (c) form of fraud or cheating of another persons’ identity (d) without the permission of the person who is in charge of the computer, to download, copy or extract any data, computer data base or information from computer. 2. ________are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you to falsifying their identity. (a)Computer viruses (b) Phishing scams (c) Phishing trips (d)Spyware scams 3. A person is being harassed repeatedly by being followed called or be written to he/she is a target of (a) Bullying (b) Stalking (c)Identity theft (d)Phishing 4. Hacking means: (a) unauthorized attempts to bypass the security mechanisms of an information system or network. (b) use of information and communication technologies to support deliberate, repeated and hostile behavior (c) a form of fraud or cheating of another persons’ identity in which someone pretends to be someone else by assuming that person’s identity. (d) without the permission of the owner to download computer data. 5. Which of the following is not done by cyber criminals? a) Unauthorized account access b) Mass attack using Trojans as botnets c) Email spoofing and spamming d) Report vulnerability in any system 1|Page 6. -------- are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you to falsifying their identity. A. Computer viruses B. Phishing scams C. Phishing trips D. Spyware scams 7. -------- are often delivered to a PC through an email attachment and are often designed to do harm. A. Spam B. Email C. Portals D. Virus 8. Which section of IT Act was invalidated by Supreme Court of India? (a) Section 66F (b) Section 66B (c) Section 66D (d)Section 66A 9. Which of the following is not a type of cyber-crime? a) Data theft b) Forgery c) Damage to data and systems d) Installing antivirus for protection 10. Cyber-laws are incorporated for punishing all criminals only. a) True b) False 11. Which of the following is not an example of a computer as weapon cyber-crime? a) Credit card fraudulent b) Spying someone using keylogger c) IPR Violation d) Pornography 12. 13. Which of the following is not done by cyber criminals? 2|Page  a) Unauthorized account access b) Mass attack using Trojans as botnets c) Email spoofing and spamming d) Report vulnerability in any system 14. The use of the Internet or other electronic means to stalk or harass an individual, a group of individuals, or an organization is termed: a) Cyberspace b) Cyber stalking c) Pornography d) None of these 15. By hacking web server taking control on another person’s website called as web.......... a) Spoofing b) Hijacking c) Spamming d) None of these. 16. Act of attempting to acquire information such as usernames, passwords, and credit card details by masquerading as a trustworthy entity is called a) email bombing b) Spamming c) Cyber stalking d) Phishing 17. The practice of making a transmission appears to come from an authorized user. a) Hacking b) Spoofing c) Spamming d) Spamdexing 18. The practice of forging a return address on an e‐mail so that the recipient is fooled into revealing private information is termed? a) hacking b) cracking c) dumpster diving d) spoofing 19. “Identity theft is the crime of obtaining the personal or financial information of another person to use their identity to commit fraud, such as making unauthorized transactions or purchases”- this statement is: a) True b)False 3|Page 20. Viruses are programs that attach themselves to a computer or a file and then circulate themselves to other files and to other computers on a network. They usually affect the data on a computer, either by altering or deleting it: this statement is: a) False b) True 21. Which is the landmark judgment of Cyber bullying/harassment in India? a) Shreyas Singhal v. UOI b) State of Bihar v. Shreya Singhal c) Shreya Singhal v. UOI d) UOI v. Shreya Singhal 22. Bandwidth Theft refers to: a) process of ‘befriending’ a young person online “to facilitate online sexual contact and/or a physical meeting with them with the goal of committing sexual abuse b) amount of data transferred from a web site to a user's computer. When you view a web page, you are using that site's bandwidth to display the files c) a cyber-crime in which a target is contacted through electronic means by someone posing as a legitimate institution to lure individuals in to providing sensitive data such as personally identifiable information, banking and credit card details, passwords etc d) none of the options 23. The age of offence of child abuse is mentioned as __________ years under IT Act, 2000. a) 14 years b) 16 years c) 18 years d) 21 years 24. To gradually change, or change someone or something, from one thing to another is called? a) Morphing b) Grooming c) Phishing d) Obscenity 25. Malwares, Denial of service attacks, Hacking are types of : a) Cyber Terrorism b) Cyber Warfare c) Phishing d)Hacking 26. Cyber stalking involves following a person’s movements across the Internet by posting messages (sometimes threatening) on the bulletin boards frequented by the victim. This statement is: a) True b) False 4|Page 27. Electronic signature or other identity theft like using others’ password or electronic signature etc. Punishment is three years imprisonment or fine of one lakh rupees or both this offence is a form of? a) Identity theft b) Hacking c) Cyber Stalking d) Denial of Service Attack. 28. Intellectual property (IP) refers to creations of the mind, such as: a) Inventions b) literary and artistic works c) designs; and symbols, names and images used in commerce d) All of the options 29. Why is IP protected by law? a) IPR is essential for better identification, planning, commercialization, rendering, and thus the preservation of inventions or creativity. b) to protect the investment, time, money, and effort invested by the inventor/creator of the IP c) IPR affects the economic development of a country by promoting healthy competition and encouraging industrial growth and economic growth d) All of the options 30. Exclusive right granted for an invention is called a) Copyright b) Geographical Indication c) Patent d) Trademark 31. Patent is granted for a) 10 years b) 20 years c) 15 years d) Life time 32. What cannot be patented? a) Mere Discovery of a Scientific Principle b) Discovery of any living thing or Discovery of non–living substance occurring in nature c) Mere discovery of any new property or new use for a known substance etc. 5|Page  d) All the options 33. Which of the following is not a remedy for infringement of patent? a) Injunction b) Damages c) Asking the infringer to do community service d) Accounts of profit 34. The set of exclusive rights granted to the author or creator of an original work, including the right to copy, distribute and adapt the work is called a) Trademark b) Copyright c) Industrial design d) Patent 35. Copyright is not available to which of the following work? a) Original Literary Work b) Original Dramatic work c) Medicine d) Cinematography films 36. Distinctive symbols, signs, logos that help consumer to distinguish between competing goods or services is called a) Patent b) Trademark c) Copyright d) Cyber crime 37. Which of the following is a function of trademark? a) It identifies the goods / or services and its origin b) It guarantees its unchanged quality c) It advertises the goods/services d) All of the options. 38. Any indications which define the goods as originating in the territory of a country or a region or locality in that territory, provided a given quality reputation or other characteristics of the product are attributable to its geographical origin is called: a) Geographical indications b) Trademark c) Patents d) Industrial design 6|Page 39. Design protection deals with the outer appearance of an article, including decoration, lines, colours, shape, texture and materials a) True b) False 40. Geographical indication has been granted to a) Kadri pak b) Mysore pak c) Bangalore pak d) None of the options 41. A layout of transistors, and other circuitry elements and includes lead wires connecting such elements and expressed in any manner in a semiconductor integrated circuit is called as a) Industrial design b) Two-dimensional design c) Layout-design d) Trademark 42. Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) protect the use of information and ideas that are of a) Ethical value b) Moral value c) Social value d) Commercial value 43. Trade mark: a) is represented graphically b) is capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one person from those of others c) may include shapes of goods or combination of colors d) All of the options 44. Which of the following is/are included in Geographical indications of Goods? a. Handicraft b. Foodstuff c. Manufactured d. All of the options 45. Patent is a form of: a) Tangible Property b) Intellectual Property c) Industrial property d) Both (b) and (c) 7|Page 46. In the following case the Hon’ble Supreme Court struck down Section 66 A of I.T. Act: a. Kartar Singh v/s State of Punjab b. Maneka Gandhi v/s UOI c. K. A. Abbas v/s UOI d. Shreya Singhal v/s UOI 47. Crime in any form adversely affects a) All the members of the society b) Does not affect anyone c) Affects only an individual d) None of the options 48. The objective of the Information Technology Act 2000 is to a) To provide legal recognition for transactions carried out by means of electronic data b) Interchange and other means of electronic communication c) To encourage alternatives to paper-based methods of communication d) All of the options 49. What does not fall under the ambit of Identity Theft? a) Illegally obtaining the personal or financial information of another person b) Fraudulent actions c) Making authorized transactions d) Making unauthorized transactions and purchases 50. Pursuing stealthily refers to a) Identity theft b) Phishing c) Cyber Stalking d) None of the options 8|Page 1 Which of the following describes E‐commerce? a) Doing business electronically b) Doing business c) Sale of goods d) All of the options 2 Which of the following is part of the four main types for e‐commerce? a) B2B b) B2C c) C2B d) All of the options 3 Which type of e‐commerce focuses on consumers dealing with each other? a) B2B b) B2C c) C2B d) C2C 4 Which is a function of E‐commerce? a) marketing b) advertising c) supplying d) all of the options 5 Most individuals are familiar with which form of E‐commerce. a) B2B b) B2C c) C2B d) C2C 6 Which of the following are advantages normally associated with B2B e‐commerce? a) Shorter cycle times b) Reduction in costs c) Reaches wider audiences d) all of the options 7 Which of the following is not related to security mechanism? a) encryption b) decryption c) e‐cash d) all the options 8 What is the name given to an interactive business providing a centralized market where many buyers and suppliers can come together for e‐commerce or commerce‐related activities? a) Direct marketplace 1|Page  b) B2B c) B2C d) Electronic marketplace 9 E-Contract is an agreement with a) Lawful consideration b) Free consent c) Without hidden motive d) All of the options 10 Which is not a type of E-Contract? a) Click wrap b) Bubble wrap c) Shrink wrap d) Browse wrap 11 E-Contracts are referred as: a) Cyber Contract b) Online Contract c) Digital Contract d) All of the options 12 ________ contracts are license agreements or other terms and conditions which can only be read and accepted by the consumer after opening the product. a) Browse wrap b) Shrink wrap c) Click wrap d) Bubble wrap 13 Which one of the following elements is not necessary for a contract? a) Competent parties b) Reasonable terms and conditions. c) Free consent d) Lawful consideration 14 Which of the following section gives the essentials to a contract? a) Section 10 of Indian Contract Act b) Section 10A of IT Act c) Section 10 of Civil Procedure Act d) Section 10 of Transfer of Property Act 15 Which of the following section gives validity to e-contracts? a) Section 10 of Indian Contract Act b) Section 10A of IT Act c) Section 10 of Civil Procedure Act d) Section 10 of Transfer of Property Act 16 Which of the following is not a feature of e-commerce? a) Technology Mediated b) Universality c) Intercommunication d)Non- delivery of Information 2|Page 17 Which of the following is not a feature of e-commerce? a) Delivery of Information b) Electronic Completion of Business Processes c) Virtual Communities d) Physical limitation 18 Ubiquity of e-commerce refers to: a) removal of traditional limitation of geographical location for commerce b) removal of age restriction for commerce c) removal of legal system for commerce d) all of the options 19 Which of the following is not related to security mechanism? a) encryption b) decryption c) e‐cash d) all the options 20 Which of the following is not a feature of e-commerce? a) Information density b) Ubiquity c) Customization d) Physical location limitation 21 The diagram denotes which model of e-commerce? a) B2C b) B2B c) C2B d) C2C 22 The diagram denotes which model of e-commerce? 3|Page  a) B2C b) B2B c) C2B d) C2C 23 The diagram denotes which model of e-commerce? a) B2C b) B2B c) C2B d) C2C 24 The diagram denotes which model of e-commerce? 4|Page  a) B2C b) B2B c) C2B d) C2C 25 What are the remedies available for breach of a contract? a) Damages; b) specific performance of the contract; and c) injunction d) All of the options 26 Which of the following is not a remedy available for breach of a contract? a) Damages; b) specific performance of the contract; and c) injunction d) Criminal prosecution 27 Specific Performance of the contract is dealt under: a) Specific Relief Act b) Indian Contract Act c) IT Act d)Civil Procedure Code 28 Injunction is: a) Stopping someone from making any change in a property or dispute b) Writ c) stopping someone from approaching a court d) none of the above 29 Electronic signature is defined under: a) Sec 2(ta) of IT Act b) Sec 28(ta) of IT Act c) Sec 2(ta) of Indian Contract Act d) none of the options 30 PKI is certified by a) Certificate Authority b) PKI Authority 5|Page  c) Central Government d) ISP 31 What are the conditions for validation of a e-contract under Section 10A of IT Act? a) Must fulfil the conditions of Sec 10 of Indian Contract Act b) Must be done on a electronic medium c) all the stages of a formation of a contract must be completed d) all of the options 32 Consider the following statements: I) Every promise is an agreement. II) Every agreement is a contract. III) A contract which cease to be enforceable by law becomes void. IV) A minor who is supplied necessaries is personally liable to pay for them Which of the statements given above are correct? a) A and C only. b) A and B only. c) A, B and C. d) B, C and D. 33 How the transactions occur in e‐commerce? a) Using e‐medias b) Using computers only c) Using mobile phones only d) None of the options 34 Which is not a function of E‐commerce? a) marketing b) advertising c) warehousing d) None of the options 35 Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) provides: a) standardized system b) Coding trade transactions c) Is used by organizations that a make a large no. of regular transaction d) All the above 36 Which of the following is a disadvantage of E-Commerce? a) Privacy of e-transactions is not guaranteed b) Expensive for small businesses c) Security of internet is not very good 6|Page  d) All of the above 37 “The technology reaches Commerce is enabled across cultural and across national boundaries, around the earth. National boundaries seamlessly and without modification” The above statement is: a) True b) False c) Somewhat True d) None of the above 38 ____________ contracts are web-based contracts that require the user’s consent or consent through the “I Accept,” or “OK” button. a) Shrink wrap b) Click wrap c) Browsing wrap d) None of the above 39 Online Contracts can be formed by: a) E-mails b) Website forms c) EULA d) All of the above 40 “Authentication of any electronic record by a subscriber by means of the electronic technique specified in the _______ schedule and includes digital signature.” a) First b) Second c) Third d) Fourth 41 ___________ are digital format certificate to prove identity in the digital world. a) E-mail ID Certificate b) Website Certificate c) Digital Signature Certificate d) None of the above 42 PKI stands for: a) Public Knowledge Interface b) Private Knowledge Interface 7|Page  c) Private Key Infrastructure d) Public Key Infrastructure 43 Public Key Infrastructure Certificates are used for: a) Providing a recovery key for an encrypted hard drive b) Securing internal communications with database servers c) Signing documents d) All the above 44 Which of the following is not a disadvantage of E-Commerce? a) E-commerce de-personalizes shopping b) Hackers attempting to steal customer information or disrupt the site c) A server containing customer information is stolen. d) The technology reaches Commerce is enabled across cultural and across national boundaries, around the earth. 45 In a C2C Business model, the website _______ a) wants to sell the product b) wants to buy the product c) places advertisements d) receives products 46 Which of the following is not an advantage of E-Commerce? a) Shopping can take place anywhere b) Customer Convenience is enhanced c) Customer money can be stolen d) Shopping costs are reduced 8|Page  QUESTIONS By proper planning you can ________________ a) Avoid all risks b) Avoid Most of the risks c) Avoid minimum risks d) None of the above By what is one of the following ways can you help to reduce safety risks for your organization's activities? a) Properly plan by thoroughly thinking through events and activities b) Do nothing so that no one will get hurt c) Have everyone sit down during the event so that no one is likely to get hurt by sitting d) Don't host events. Just send emails to let everyone know how passionate you are about your organization Which of the following is NOT a component of e-waste ____________ ? a) Nature Centric b) Human Centric c) Bio Centric d) All of the options _________ aims to maximize good consequences for human beings a) Utilitarianism b) Environmentalism c) Pollution control d) Aestheticism What does e-waste stand for? a) Environmental waste b) Equipment waste c) Electronic waste d) Engineering waste ______ ethics ensures worth of all living beings and organisms a) Nature Centric b) Human Centric c) Bio Centric d) All of the options Two approaches to environmental ethics are: a) Nature Centric and Human Centric b) Nature Centric and Industry Centric c) Human Centric and Eco Centric d) Human Centric and Environment Centric In the current scenario, caring for the environment has become a: a) Necessity for our survival otherwise the environment will deteriorate b) Not necessity for our survival c) To effectively co-ordinate with other departments d) To maintain the balance caring is not required. The phenomenon which refers to some form of friction, or discord arising within a group when the beliefs or actions of one or more members of the group are either resisted by or unacceptable to one or more members of another group a) Struggle b) Moonlighting c) Industrial Espionage d) Price Fixing Which of the following is an appropriate general principle with regard for “Engineering Ethics”? a) The Engineer shall regard his duty to the public welfare as paramount to all other obligations. b) The Engineer shall regard his duty to the objectives of the company as paramount to all other obligations c) The Engineer shall regard his duty to the profession of engineering as paramount to other obligations. d) The Engineer shall regard his duty to his excellence as paramount to other obligations. A written statement of policies and principles that guides the behavior of all employees is called: a) Word of Ethics b) Company’s Code c) Code of Ethics d) Ethics and Behavior code A situation in which an engineer’s loyalty and obligations may be compromised because of self-interests or other loyalties and obligations ___ a) Conflict of interest b) Conceptual issue c) Concern of interest d) Interaction rules Which of the following is not usually the objective of a code of ethics? a) to create an ethical workplace b) to evaluate the ethical components of the proposed actions of the employees c) to improve the public image of the company d) to enhance the profits of the business continuously. Which of the following statements in the profession’s code of ethics is the most accurate? a) A code of ethics makes sure that all the members of a profession act ethically at all times b) A code of ethics communicates the principles and expected behavior of a profession ‘s members c) A code of ethics always includes standard of conduct d)A code of ethics is a book not followed strictly. Promoting what is good for oneself without caring societal relationships can be termed ___ a) Ethical Egoism b) Self control c) Self Esteem d) Moral Authority What does risk assessment tell you? a) How to report accidents at the workplace b) The working hours of the organization c) It mentions the list of doctors and the number of First Aid boxes in the organization d) How to do the job safely at the workplace. Three major characteristics of a profession are: a) Advanced knowledge, Self-Regulation, Public Good b) Efficiency, Economic growth, Code of ethics c) Public Good, legal correctness, Personal efficiency d) Self care, Technical skill, Norms of behavior Ethics is a ----------------------- science. a) Positive b) Negative c) Normative d) Theoretical Why should regular inspections of the workplace take place? a) To check whether the working environment is safe b) To check everyone is doing their job c) To prepare for a visit from concerned employer. d) To check that all staff are present and correct. In order to determine the risk, which of the following criterion should have knowledge? a) Knowledge of Risk b) Uncertainties in Design c) Testing for Safety d) All the options. An activity of a business firm which promotes philanthropic concerns is identifies as part of their: a) Corporate Social Responsibility b) Marketing plan c) Profit enhancing plan d) Employee welfare plan.. ------------------- refers to the act of organization members, disclosing information on illegal and unethical practices within the organization a) Oxymoron b) Reporting c) Whistleblowing d) Quickening Corporate Social Responsibility is equally important to: a) Community b) Company c) Community and Country d) Community and society Ethics – a) Are moral principles that govern a person's behavior or the conducting of an activity. b) Any occupation/job/vocation that requires advanced expertise, self-regulation and concerned service to the public good. It brings a high status socially and economically. c) Is a the state or quality of being immoral. d) Is a system of rules which a particular country or community recognizes as regulating the actions of its members and which it may enforce by the imposition of penalties. Which of the following is true with respect to the scope of engineering? i. Ethics of the workplace which involves the co-workers and employees in an organization. ii. Ethics related to the product or work which involves the transportation, warehousing, and use, besides the safety of the end product and the environment outside the factory. a) Only i b) Only ii c) Both i and ii d) Neither i nor ii Which of the following is a reason for unethical behavior amongst employers and employees? a) Opportunity b) Resource crunch c) Attitude d) All the options Which of the following is not a reason for poor attitude amongst employees? a) Low morale of the employees because of dissatisfaction and downsizing b) Absence of grievance redressal mechanism c) Absence of recognition and reward system d) Good working environments. Choose the incorrect statement in relation to moral dilemma. a) Dilemmas are situations in which moral reasons come into conflict. b) When in a dilemma, one is not clear of the immediate choice or solution of the problems. c) Moral dilemma makes the decision making very easy. d) When in a dilemma, one is unable to distinguish between good and bad Which of the following is a complexity leading to a moral dilemma? a) The problem of certainty b) The problem of conflicting reasons c) The problem of agreement d) All the options Pick the odd step out in solving a dilemma. a) Identification of the moral factors and reasons. Identify the relevant moral values from among duties, rights, goods and obligations. Professional code of ethics may be referred. b) Collection of all information, data, and facts relevant to the situation. c)Rank the moral options i.e., priority in application through value system. d) Not discuss with colleagues and obtain their perspectives, priorities, and suggestions on various alternatives. Moral autonomy is defined as – a) Moral principles that govern a person's behavior or the conducting of an activity. b) The status of a professional which implies certain attitudes or typical qualities that re expected of a professional. c) The situations in which moral reasons come into conflict. d) Decisions and actions exercised on the basis of moral concern for other people and recognition of good moral reasons. Moral autonomy is also referred to as- a) self-determinant b) Dependent c) Conflicted d) Confused Which of the following is not a skill associated with moral autonomy? a) Proficiency in recognizing moral problems in engineering and ability to distinguish problems in law, economics, and religion. b) Skill in comprehending, clarifying, and critically-assessing arguments on different aspects of moral issues. c) Ability to form inconsistent and incomprehensive viewpoints based on facts. d) Awareness of alternate responses to the issues and creative solutions. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of professionalism? a) Oligopoly b) No autonomy in the work place c) Expertise and knowledge d) Mediocre training At international level, the organizations are expected to adopt the minimum levels of: a) values, such as mutual support, loyalty, and reciprocity, b) the negative duty of refraining from harmful actions such as violence and fraud, c) basic fairness and justice in case of conflicts. d) All the options Environmental ethics is concerned with which of the following issues? a) Ensure protection of the environment. b) Promote the degradation of environment. c) Speed up the exploitation of the natural resources, so that the future generation cant survive. d) Destroy the wildlife and increase man-animal conflict.