2020 Neurology CT 1 - Corrected PDF

Neurology 1 – 1. Credit Test WS 2020 1. During MR angiography (MRA) a. the contrast medium is never used b. iodinated contrast agent is used – no iodine is wrong c. it is not possible to visualize the blood vessels without administration of a contrast agent d. for more detai...

Neurology 1 – 1. Credit Test WS 2020 1. During MR angiography (MRA) a. the contrast medium is never used b. iodinated contrast agent is used – no iodine is wrong c. it is not possible to visualize the blood vessels without administration of a contrast agent d. for more detailed blood vessel visualisation gadolinium may be used 2. MR angiography (MRA) a. gadolinium contrast is not contraindicated in pregnant women b. is faster method compared to CT angiography c. is cheaper method compared to CT angiography d. does not use radiation – yes 3. CT angiography of cerebral blood vessels is indicated in case of a. subarachnoid bleeding b. subdural bleeding c. meningitis or encephalitis d. epidural bleeding – no 4. Digital subtraction angiography (DSA) is not used for diagnosis of a. the source of epidural bleeding – 99% sure b. extracranial stenoses of blood vessel – gold standard for renal a. stenosis c. intracranial bleeding d. intracranial stenoses of blood vessel 5. Mark the correct statement regarding digital subtraction angiography (DSA) a. no iodine contrast agent is used b. is not based on X-rays c. it is a diagnostic and therapeutic method d. is contraindicated in subarachnoid hemorrhage 6. Glasgow coma scale evaluates a. eye-opening, verbal and Babinski responses b. comprehension, verbal, motor responses c. eye-opening, verbal, flection, extension responses d. eye-opening, verbal, motor responses 7. For the evaluation of the brainstem reactivity in coma patient we do not use a. vestibulocochlear reflexes b. Babinski sign c. oculocephalic reflexes (both horizontal & vertical) d. gag reflex (also cough) 8. Which wake-sleep EEG finding/pattern is not normal/ physiological finding? a. Periodic Spike-wave-complexes, triphasic complexes b. Diminished occipital alpha following an opening of eyes c. Sleep spindles d. K-complexes 9. EEG cannot be used to differentiate a. Loss of consciousness in hepatal coma  intoxications, like alcohol or drugs b. Cognitive decline in Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease  yes, can differentiate from Dementia c. Epilepsy  can identify origin d. Headache 10. Which finding does not belong to ictal/interictal epileptic abnormality? Could not find a. focal rhytmic theta activity b. K-complexes c. focal epileptic discharges- spike and wave complexes d. generalized discharges of spike-wave complexes 11. EMG (electromyography): nerve conduction studies – NCS show a. in the case of a demyelinating-axonal lesion, a slowing down of the conduction velocity of a given part of nerve and a normal amplitude of the action potential b. in the case of demyelinating-axonal lesions, slowing down the conduction velocity through a given part of the nerve and increasing the amplitude of the action potential c. in the case of a demyelinating-axonal lesion, a slowing down of the conduction velocity through a given part of the nerve and a decrease in the amplitude of the action potential d. in the case of a demyelinating-axonal lesion, an increase in the conduction velocity through a given part of the nerve and an increase in the amplitude of the action potential 12. The EMG (electromyography) method, called STEMG (repetitive nerve stimulation EMG), is used in a case of suspected a. myelopathy - there is pathological decrement of the amplitude of the action potential of the response b. myasthenic syndrome – there is pathological decrement of the action potential amplitudes in the repeated muscle response c. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis - there is pathological increment of the amplitude of the action potential of the muscle response d. myopathy - there is pathological decrement of the velocity of the muscle response 13. EMG (electromyography) - needle EMG method: we observe in a case of myopathy a. myopathic pattern with prolongation of the response time of AP MU (action potential of motor units) b. myopathic pattern as an increase in the number of muscle fibers and an increase in the action potential of motor units as well as an increase in the amplitude of the response c. myopathic pattern as shortening the duration of the action potential of motor units and decreasing the amplitude of the response d. a neuropathic pattern as action potentials called duplets and triplets 14. EMG (electromyography): method of needle EMG a. we insert a needle into the muscle and then we take a muscle sample for histological examination b. is used for measurement of skin conductivity by needle insertion c. we insert a needle into the given nerve and then we observe spontaneous muscle activity, in the next step voluntary activity – muscle contraction d. we insert a needle into the muscle and then we observe spontaneous muscle activity, in the next step voluntary activity – muscle contraction 15. EMG (electromyography): nerve conduction studies - NCS show a. in axonal lesions we find a slowing of the conduction velocity of a given part of the nerve and a decrease in the amplitude of the action potential of the responses b. in axonal lesions a slowing of the conduction velocity of a given part of the nerve and an increase in the amplitude of the action potential of the responses c. in axonal lesions we find an increase in the conduction velocity of a given part of the nerve and a decrease in the amplitude of the action potential of the responses d. in the case of an axonal lesion, we find the normal conduction velocity of a given part of the nerve and a decrease in the amplitude of the action potential of the responses 16. Evoked potentials: BAEP (Brainstem auditory EP) - the most common pathological findings are a. complete absence of V.wave, or prolonged latency of I.wave b. complete absence of some evoked response (wave), or prolonged latency of wave I., III. or V. c. complete absence of N20 wave or prolonged latency of N20 wave d. complete absence of wave IV. or prolonged latency of IV. Wave 17. VEP - visual evoked potentials a. physiological finding after eye stimulation is a complex of two responses - waves P25 and P40 in a typical N-P-N complex b. the physiological finding after eye stimulation is a complex of three waves - I., III. and V., corresponding to the conduction through the brainstem (N-P-N complex) c. the physiological finding after eye stimulation is a complex of three waves - N-P-N, of which the most important is the latency of the wave P100 d. the physiological finding after eye stimulation is a complex of five waves at the level of the brainstem (wave I.-V.), and we evaluate mainly the latency of the wave N1 18. Evoked potentials: pathological findings in BAEP (Brainstem auditory EP) may reveal early stages a. of a tumor infiltrating the n.statoacusticus (n.VIII) b. of a tumor infiltrating the vagus (n.X) nerve c. of a tumor infiltrating the lower part of the cervical spinal cord d. of a tumor infiltrating the optic chiasma 19. Evoked potentials: SEP (somatosensory EP) a. in practice, stimulation of the vestibulocochlear nerve is most often used in SEP b. stimulation of the n.axillaris and n.peroneus is most often used in practice c. in the routine practice is mostly used stimulation of the median nerve and the optic nerve d. stimulation of the median nerve and tibial nerve is most often used in practice 20. Evoked potentials: using SEP (somatosensory EP) we investigate a. the function of the olfactory and taste pathways simultaneously in the part of the peripheral nerve, brainstem and cerebral cortex b. the function of the optic pathway, especially the integrity of the optic nerve and optic chiazma c. the function of the sensitive pathway in its part of the peripheral nerve, spinal roots, spinal cord, brainstem and cerebral cortex d. function of the auditory and vestibular pathway at the level of the brainstem, less used in cortical lesions 21. What diseases lead to the positive intrathecal synthesis of Ig a. Alzheimer disease b. Parkinson disease c. acute ischemic stroke d. multiple sclerosis  key feature of MS 22. What are the indications of cerebrospinal fluid analysis? a. brain tumor b. autoimmune encephalitis c. ischemic stroke d. skull fracture 23. Mark correct answer a. cerebrospinal fluid flows from the third ventricle through cerebral aqueduct into the fourth ventricle b. cerebrospinal fluid is predominantly secreted in the fourth ventricle  lateral ventricles c. most of the cerebrospinal fluid volume is present within subdural space  ventricular & subarachnoidal compartments d. the mean cerebrospinal fluid volume is 800ml  130 – 136ml 24. Mark correct answer a. spectrophotometric analysis of CSF can not confirm the diagnosis of subarachnoidal bleeding b. lymphocytic pleocytosis is present predominantly in patients with viral meningitis c. hyperproteinorachia combined with increased count of polymorphonuclear cells is present in patients with viral infections of central nervous system  typical for bacteria d. hyperproteinorachia combined with an increased count of cells is called proteino-cytological dissociation 25. Mark correct answer a. spectrophotometric analysis of cerebrospinal fluid is indicated in all patients with acute ischemic stroke b. spectrophotometric analysis of cerebrospinal fluid is used in patients with suspected Alzheimer disease c. spectrophotometric analysis of cerebrospinal fluid measures increased level of glucose d. spectrophotometric analysis of cerebrospinal fluid detects the presence of the blood in cerebrospinal fluid 26. Brain MRI is essential in diagnosis of a. haemoragic stroke b. multiple sclerosis c. skull fracture d. head injuries 27. Mark correct answer a. brain MRI of patients with multiple sclerosis shows T2/FLAIR hyperintense lesions b. brain MRI of patients with multiple sclerosis shows T1 hyperintense lesions c. MRI is contraindicated in patients with iodine contrast allergy  gadolinium is contrast agent & contraindications: ex - & internal metallic / electronic implants, pregnancy, claustrophobia, children & renal insufficiency d. MRI is a gold standard for diagnosis of head injury 28. Mark correct answer a. the cerebrospinal fluid is displayed as hyperintense on the T2 and FLAIR b. the cerebrospinal fluid is displayed as hyperintense on the T1-weighted MR image c. the cerebrospinal fluid is displayed as hypointense on the T2-weighted MR image d. the cerebrospinal fluid is displayed as hyperintense on the T2-weighted MR image 29. Mark incorrect answer a. MRI in comparison with CT is more sensitive in depicting bone tissue pathology b. MRI is indicated in all patients with suspicion for myelitis c. MRI is contraindikated in patients with cardiostimulator d. MRI can also be used in children 30. Routinely we use ultrasound examination in diagnosis of a. Brain tumors b. Movement disorders c. Back pain d. Cerebrovascular diseases 31. Transcranial sonography of cerebral arteries a. We cannot asses spasms of the arteries of Willis circuit b. We cannot asses stenosis or occlusion of the middle cerebral artery c. The examination is carried out through the so-called acoustic bone windows d. Basilar and vertebral arteries cannot be viewed through ultrasound 32. Mark the correct statement regarding Doppler effect a. If the blood moves towards the probe, the frequency of the reflected wave does not change b. Based on Doppler effect, we do not measure the frequency of reflected wave c. If the blood moves towards the probe, the frequency of the reflected wave decreases d. If the blood moves towards the probe, the frequency of the reflected wave increases 33. Carotid sonography cannot reveal a. the presence of calcified plaques in common carotid artery b. the presence of stenosis of internal carotid artery below the bifurcation c. the presence of a soft atherosclerotic plaque in the cervical part of internal carotid artery d. the course of vertebral arteries in the neck area 34. Duplex ultrasound examination of extracranial blood vessels is contraindicated a. In patient after thyroid gland surgery b. Ultrasound has no major contraindication c. In pregnancy d. In patients with allergy to iodine contrast agent 35. Typical features of NREM sleep are not a. K-complexes, vertex sharp waves b. Rapid eye movements c. Delta frequency band d. Sleep spindels  at least not the majority of the time 36. Daytime polysomnography - Multiple Sleep latency Test is used to diagnose a. Sleep apnea b. Narcolepsy c. Periodic leg movements d. Epilepsy 37. Full night polysomnography consists of a. Video, EMG, Electrooculogram, Airflow, O2 saturation, Breathing pattern, ECG b. Video, EEG, EMG, Electrooculogram, Airflow, O2 saturation, Breathing pattern, ECG, Leg movements c. Video, EMG, Electrooculogram, Airflow, O2 saturation, Breathing pattern, ECG, Leg movements d. EMG, Electrooculogram, Airflow, O2 saturation, Breathing pattern, ECG, Leg movements 38. Brain CT is not a method of choice in diagnosis of a. Multiple sclerosis b. Acute ischemic stroke c. Epidural bleeding d. Hemoragic stroke 39. What density has an acute intracerebral bleeding on CT a. Hypodense, comparing to brain tissue b. Desnity as cerebrospinal fluid c. We cannot see acute intracerebral bleeding on CT d. Hyperdense, comparing to brain tissue 40. Epidural bleeding on CT is seen as a. Hypodense semicircle lesion b. Hypodense biconvex lens-like shape lesion c. Hyperdense biconvex lens-like shape lesion d. Hyperdense semcircle lesion 41. Patients with cerebellar dysfunction typically fall a. Backwards  frequent in palleocerebellar syndrome b. To the side of the affected cerebellar hemisphere – no indication c. Forwards d. To the contralateral side of the affected cerebellar hemisphere 42. Dysdiadochokinesis means a. Problem with rapid alternating movements b. Tremor of a limb before reaching the target c. Problem with aiming d. Problem with coordination between muscle groups in a more complex movement 43. Lesions of the vermis will be primarily related to ataxia of a. Contralateral limbs b. Standing and walking c. Ipsilateral limbs d. Speech 44. Which of the following is a typical feature of palleocerebellar syndrome? a. All statements are correct b. Ataxia of stance and gait c. Trunk assynergy d. Falls, usually backwards 45. Which of the following symptoms is not a feature of neocerebellar syndrome? a. Passivity (lower muscle tone) b. Oculomotor abnormalities c. Hypermetria d. Trunk assynergy  of fine movements (also adiadochokinesis & intentional tremor) 46. Which of the following does not belong to the cerebellar symptoms? a. Intentional tremor (also kinetic) b. Dysarthria (also ataxic, scanning, speech) c. Balance problems d. Paresis 47. Which of the following symptoms is a feature of neocerebellar syndrome? Wtf – a is clearly wrong, b + c are both clearly correct a. Oculomotor abnormalities b. Passivity (lower muscle tone) c. Hypermetria d. All statements are correct 48. Archicerebellum includes the a. None statement is correct b. Cerebellar hemispheres  Neocerebellum c. Flocculonodular lobe d. Vermis  Neocerebellum 49. Willis circle is formed by a. anterior communicating artery  also two anterior cerebral, the two internal carotid, the two post. communicating, and proximal segments of the two post. cerebral aa. b. vertebral arteries c. middle meningeal artery d. perforating arteries 50. Mark the correct statement a. anterior communicating artery connects both anterior cerebral arteries b. posterior cerebral artery is most commonly a branch of internal carotid artery c. middle cerebral artery supplies mainly the medial part of the frontal and parietal lobe d. posterior communicating arteries are terminal branches of the basilar artery 51. Syringomyelic dissociation of sensitivity occurs within a. Lesion to spinothalamic tract in the area of central spinal canal b. Lesion to the dorsal horn of spinal cord c. Lesion to the thalamus d. Lesion to the posterior collumns of spinal cord 52. Syringomyelic dissociation of sensitivity is manifested by a. Damage of deep-, pain- and thermic sensitivity b. Lesion of pain and thermic sensitivity c. Lesion of deep sensitivity - no d. It is not manifested by sensitivity disorder 53. Isolated defect in deep sensitivity occurs within – could not check a. Lesions of anterior spinal artery b. Lesion in the area of the central spinal canal c. Lesion of the posterior collumns d. Lesion of lateral columns 54. Anterior spinal artery syndrome is not manifested by a. Bowel and urogenital problems b. Lesion of dorsal collumn pathway c. Motor paralysis below the lesion d. Lesion of spinothalamic pathway 55. Mark correct statement about parkinsonian tremor a. it affects not only the limbs but also the head  extremely rare, more likely ET or dystonic b. it absents in approx. 30% of patients with Parkinson’s disease c. it worsens during movement of a tremulous body part d. it is usually symmetric, affecting both right and left side of a body equally 56. Mark incorrect statement for Parkinson’s disease a. wearing-off means the loss of treatment effect shortly before the next tablet is taken – is correct b. there is very narrow therapeutic window in advanced stage of the disease – 90% sure correct c. very good therapeutic effect is observed in early stage of the disease – 90% sure correct d. dyskinesia is present in under-dosed patients – complex association bound to LT side - effects 57. Mark correct statement about rigidity a. it worsens by the movement of contralateral limb b. catch is present during passive movement of the limb c. it depends on velocity of passive movement of the limb d. it improves by the movement of contralateral limb 58. Intentional tremor is typical for a. Parkinson’s disease b. Stroke c. Essential tremor d. Cerebellar dysfunction 59. Which statement is true for Essential tremor? a. It is associated with action (postural and kinetic) tremor b. Patients usually have concomitant parkinsonism c. Patients usually have concomitant ataxia d. It is associated with resting tremor 60. Myoclonus may originate a. Only from spinal cord b. Only from basal ganglia c. Only from the cortex d. Can be cortical, subcortical or spinal 61. Which of the following hyperkinetic movements is characterized as a complex patterned movement/posture? a. Myoclonus b. Tremor c. Chorea  unpredictable / no pattern d. Dystonia 62. Typical pattern of dystonia in late adulthood is a. Focal or segmental dystonia mostly in upper part of body (cervical dystonia, blepharospasm) b. Hemidystonia c. There is no specific pattern of dystonia for this age d. Generalized dystonia 63. Which of the following belongs to hyperkinetic movement disorders? a. Hypokinesia b. Myoclonus c. Rigidity d. Bradykinesia 64. Subacute onset of movement disorder is characteristic for the following etiology a. Autoimmune and paraneoplastic b. Vascular  acute c. Toxic  acute d. Neurodegenerative  chronic / progressive 65. Genetic origin of movement disorders should be considered especially if a. Symptoms start in early childhood, adolescence or early adulthood b. Symptoms start in late adulthood c. Family history is negative d. Symptoms started immediately after initiation of a new medication 66. Key clinical feature of Parkinson’s disease (must be present in 100% of patients) is a. Bradykinesia b. Resting tremor  not key in 100% c. Rigidity d. Chorea 67. In brain stem lesion a. there is a sensory lesion on the side of affected n.V. nucleus b. there is sensory lesion in the area of mandibula c. there is onion type sensory lesion around mouth and nose d. there is a hyposensitivity of the whole face 68. In lesion of right n.III a. on the right side is present direct FR and on the left is not present consensual FR b. on the right side is not present direct FR and on the left is not present consensual FR c. on the right side is present direct FR and consensual FR (photo reaction)on the left side d. on the right side is not present direct FR and on the left side is present consensual FR 69. Uncinate crisis is present in lesion of a. n.I b. frontal lobe c. n. VIII. d. temporal lobe 70. In case of complete damage of right optic nerve a. there is bilateral blindness b. there is blindness on the left eye c. there is blindness on the right eye d. there is right side hemianopsia 71. The facial nerve (n.VII) innervates a. taste ipsilaterally, of the anterior third of the tongue b. taste ipsilaterally, anterior two thirds of the tongue c. taste ipsilaterally, dorsal part of the tongue d. taste contralaterally, a half of the tongue 72. The lesion of the cochlear nerve is manifested by a. hearing deficit - from hypacusis to anacusis b. dizziness and vomitus c. imbalance, especially manifestation of vestibular ataxia ipsilaterally d. nystagmus to the opposite side of the cochlear nerve lesion 73. Peripheral type of facial nerve (n.VII) lesion is manifested by a. on both sides there is a complete loss of facial mimics and taste perception on the anterior two thirds of the tongue b. inability to wrinkle the forehead, raise the eyebrows and close the eye, there is a drop of mouth angle and the perception of taste may also be reduced c. on the contralateral side there is an inability to wrinkle the forehead, raise the eyebrows and close the eye, there may also be a drop in the mouth angle d. inability to open the eye, ptosis, smoothed nasolabial line the same side and there is a decrease in the mouth angle depending on the location of the lesion there may be a taste disorder 74. Mark the correct statement: vestibular nerve and cochlear nerve (n.VIII) a. they emerge from the pyramid bone through the meatus acusticus internus and enter the cortex in the area of the medulla oblongata b. they emerge from the pyramid bone through the meatus acusticus internus and enter the trunk in the mesencephallon (brainstem) c. they emerge from the pyramid bone through the meatus acusticus externus at the ponto- cerebellar angle d. they emerge through the meatus acusticus internus and enter the brainstem in the ponto- cerebellar angle 75. Vestibular ataxia: when testing a patient's posture a. closing the eyes does not worsen the ataxia, therefore the Romberg test is positive b. the ataxia worsens when the eyes are closed, the Romberg test is positive c. closing the eyes does not change the ataxia, Romberg's test is still negative d. the ataxia worsens when the eyes are closed, the Romberg test is negative 76. Nystagmus is defined as a. rapidly repetitive, rhythmic movement of the eyes, or twitch of the eyeballs which occurs in lesions of the vestibular nerve or vestibular pathways b. rhythmic twitch of mimic muscles ipsilaterally on half of the face c. rapidly repetitive, regular, rhythmic movement of the eyes and muscles around the mouth d. an inability to look up and is associated with diplopia 77. Lesion to the XII. cranial nerve on the left side manifests as a. Atrophy and fasciculations of the whole tounge b. Hypotrophy of the left half of the tongue, paralysis of the left half of the tongue, tip of the tounge deviates to the left side c. Aphasia d. Hypotrophy of the right half of the tongue, paralysis of the right half of the tongue, tip of the tounge deviates to the right side 78. XI.cranial nerve innervates a. Neck’s muscles (m.sternocleidomastoideus, m.trapezius) b. Does not innvervate any muscles c. Tongue’s muscles d. M. masseter 79. Nuclear and/or infranuclear lesion of the cranial nerves IX.,X.,XII. manifests as a. Bulbar paralysis b. Pseudobulbar paralysis  CN 5 + 7 c. Do not manifest at all d. Aphasia 80. Mark correct statement about spasticity a. Muscle’s tone is increased by the movement of a contralateral limb b. Muscle’s tone is decreased by the movement of a contralateral limb c. Botulinum toxin is used in the treatment of spasticity d. It is not present in patients after the stroke 81. Tetraparesis/tetraplegia means the weakness of a. all four limbs b. lower limbs c. right/left limbs d. upper limbs 82. Central palsy is characterized by a. Areflexia  hyperreflexia & clonus b. fibrillations verified by needle EMG c. bradykinesia  left over – no indication though d. muscles’ hypertonia 83. Central palsy is characterized by a. Hyporeflexia  hyperreflexia b. Babinski sign is present c. marked muscles’ atrophies  only mild from inactivity d. fasciculations 84. Signs of upper alternating hemiparesis (Weber’s syndrome) include a. divergent strabismus b. miosis c. flaccid hemiparesis on the limbs d. loss of a smell (anosmia) 85. Signs of upper alternating hemiparesis (Jackson’s syndrome)include a. flaccid hemiparesis on the limbs b. protruded tongue deviates to the ipsilateral side to the lesion c. central palsy of n.VII.  10 – 12 d. protruded tongue deviates to the contralateral side to the lesion – is for motoric and sensory contralateral disturbs of the trunk limbs. 86. Peripheral palsy is characterized by a. rigidity b. Babinski sign is present c. spasticity d. fasciculations 87. Weber's syndrome is characterized by a. hemiparesis is not present b. Ipsilateral III. nerve palsy and Ipsilateral hemiparesis c. Contralateral III. nerve palsy and contralateral hemiparesis d. Ipsilateral III. nerve palsy and contralateral hemiparesis 88. In case of superior alternating hemiplegia a lesion of which cranial nerve is present a. VI. cranial nerve b. IV. cranial nerve c. III. cranial nerve d. II. cranial nerve 89. Middle alternating hemiplegia is characterized by a. Contralateral central n.VII lesion and contralateral hemiparesis b. Ipsilateral central n.VII lesion and contralateral hemiparesis c. Ipsilateral peripheral n.VII lesion and contralateral hemiparesis d. Ipsilateral peripheral n.VII lesion and ipsilateral hemiparesis 90. Millard-Gubler syndrome is also called a. Middle alternating hemiplegia b. Superior alternating hemiplegia c. Inferior alternating hemiplegia d. There is no such syndrome 91. Wernicke center is in a. left occipital lobe b. right temporal lobe c. left temporal lobe d. right frontal lobe 92. Temporal lobe syndrom is associated with a. non fluent aphasia  occipital lobe b. contralateral hyposensitivity c. the lesion of the visual field d. anosognosia  unawareness or denial of a neurological deficit, such as hemiplegia 93. Alexia a. is unability to count  b. is unability to understand to written text c. is vision disorder d. is unability to write  agraphia 94. Perseveration a. is present in lesion of temporal lobe of dominant hemisphere b. is not the sign of brain damage c. is repeating of the worlds, usually the last one in sentence d. is the use of indecent expressions 95. Mark correct answers a. CSF is resorbed through the choroid plexus  Via villi arachnoidales in superior sagital sinus area (arachnoid granulationes) into the venous sinuses b. hydrocephalus leads to enlargement of epidural space c. clinical presentation of hydrocephalus is contralateral hemiparesis d. hydrocephalus leads to enlargement of epidural space 96. Transtentorial brain herniation (temporal conus) - idk a. is manifested by loss of the consciousness and contralateral mydriasis b. occurs with the lesions localised in the infratentorial space c. is a benign sign of meningeal syndrome d. occurs when the uncal area is moved downward through the tentorium cerebelli 97. What diagnoses are not causes of intracranial hypertension syndrome ? a. intracerebral haematoma (also epidural & subdural) b. atrophy of hippocarpal area c. brain metastases d. hydrocephalus 98. What are the causes of intracranial hypertension syndrome ? a. brain abscess b. multiple sclerosis c. polyradiculoneutitis d. Alzheimer disease  99. A lesion of half of the spinal cord (right or left) at the level of the Th8 spinal cord segment is manifested by [so Brown-Séquard syndrome?] a. sensory disturbance below the lesion site ipsilaterally due to deep sensitivity and spastic monoparesis of LL ipsilaterally b. quadruparesis and impaired perception of deep sensitivity c. sensitivity disturbance below the lesion site ipsilaterally for superficial and less also for deep sensitivity and LL monoparesis d. spastic or mixed contralateral monoparesis of the lower limb 100. A complete transversal spinal cord lesion at the level of the C2-3 segment is manifested by a. Flaccid quadruparesis b. Bulbar syndrome c. Spastic quadruparesis – 70% sure d. Flaccid hemiparesis