Prosthodontics Practice Questions - PDF

Prosthodontics Q1: When border molding a mandibular custom tray that will be used for a final denture impression, the distolingual extension is limited by the action of the: A. superior constrictor muscle B. masseter muscle C. lateral pterygoid muscle D. buccinator muscle Answer: superior...

Prosthodontics Q1: When border molding a mandibular custom tray that will be used for a final denture impression, the distolingual extension is limited by the action of the: A. superior constrictor muscle B. masseter muscle C. lateral pterygoid muscle D. buccinator muscle Answer: superior constrictor muscle Q2: The primary reasons for obtaining the most extensive areal coverage for a mandibular complete denture are: A. to increase the capacity of underlying structures to withstand the stress due to biting force and to improve appearance B. to provide balanced occlusion and to increase tongue space C. to increase the capacity of the underlying structures to withstand the stress due to biting force and to increase the effectiveness of the seal D. to improve retention and to increase tongue space Answer: to increase the capacity of the underlying structures to withstand the stress due to biting force and to increase the effectiveness of the seal Q3: A reline is indicated on any denture when the diagnostic information indicates that a reline will effectively solve the patient's chief complaint—when the denture base adaptation is the major defect in the prosthesis. A reline is contraindicated when there is excessive overclosure of the vertical dimension—a large decrease in vertical dimension. In this case, new dentures are indicated at the proper vertical dimension. A. both statements are true B. both statements are false C. the first statement is true, the second is false D. the first statement is false, the second is true Answer: both statements are true Q4: All new dentures should be evaluated: A. 3 hours after delivery B. 12 hours after delivery C. 24 hours after delivery D. 48 hours after delivery Answer: 24 hours after delivery Q5: Inadequate vertical dimension of occlusion may cause: A. gagging B. cheek biting C. reduced taste D. sore spots in the vestibule Answer: cheek biting Q6: All of the following are true regarding the placement of maxillary central incisors in complete dentures EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. long axes should be perpendicular to occlusal plane B. arranged directly over the ridge C. placement controls midline, speaking line and lip support D. are responsible for helping to make "F" and "V" sounds Answer: arranged directly over the ridge Q7: A patient who wears a complete maxillary denture complains of a burning sensation in the palatal area of his/her mouth. This is indicative of too much pressure being exerted by the denture on the: A. incisive foramen B. palatal mucosa C. hamular notch D. posterior palatal seal Answer: incisive foramen Q8: The treatment plan for a patient indicates that both mandibular and maxillary immediate dentures are to be fabricated. The ideal way to do this is: A. fabricate the maxillary immediate denture first B. fabricate the mandibular immediate denture first C. fabricate the maxillary and mandibular immediate dentures at the same time Answer: fabricate the maxillary and mandibular immediate dentures at the same time Q9: The first step in the treatment of abused tissues in a patient with existing dentures is to: A. fabricate a new set of dentures B. reline the dentures C. educate the patient D. excise the abused tissues Answer: educate the patient Q10: The most important benefit of an overdenture (root-retained denture) is: A. the psychological comfort of avoiding the loss of all teeth B. the continuous functional feedback for the neuromuscular system from proprioceptors in the periodontal membrane C. the preservation of the alveolar ridge D. the improved support and stability for the denture E. the increased retention of the denture Answer: the preservation of the alveolar ridge Q11: Which sounds help determine the labiolingual position of the anterior teeth? A. linguoalveolar sounds or sibilants (such as s, z, sh, and ch) B. fricatives or labiodental sounds (such as f, v, or ph) C. the b, p, and m sounds D. linguodental sounds (such as this, that, or those) Answer: linguodental sounds (such as this, that, or those) Q12: Whistling in a speaking denture patient may be caused when: A. vertical overlap is not enough B. the area palatal to the incisors is improperly contoured C. horizontal overlap is too much D. all of the above Answer: all of the above Q13: A patient has worn a complete maxillary denture for 8 years against mandibular anterior teeth (the remainder of the mandibular teeth are missing). She complains of looseness of the denture. Examination of the mouth shows an excessive amount of hyperplastic tissue at the anterior part of the maxillary ridge. The maxillary denture teeth do not show below the upper lip. Radiographs show poor bone structure in the anterior part of the maxillae. The principal cause of difficulty with her maxillary denture is: A. fibrous tuberosities B. too great a vertical dimension of occlusion C. a lack of posterior occlusion D. the maxillary denture teeth that were used are too short Answer: a lack of posterior occlusion Q14: The primary indicator of the accuracy of border molding is: A. adequate coverage of tray borders with the material used for border molding B. contours of the periphery similar to the final form of the denture C. stability and lack of displacement of the tray in the mouth D. uniformly thick borders of the periphery Answer: stability and lack of displacement of the tray in the mouth Q15: The ultimate support for a maxillary denture is the bone of the two maxillae and the palatine bone. The palatal rugae are a primary support area as well. A. both statements are true B. both statements are false C. the first statement is true, the second is false D. the first statement is false, the second is true Answer: the first statement is true, the second is false Q16: An overextended distobuccal corner of a mandibular denture will push against which muscle during function? A. zygomaticus B. orbicularis oris C. temporalis D. masseter Answer: masseter Q17: After border molding the mandibular custom tray, it is important to check for dislodgement in order to detect areas of: A. underextension of the tray B. overextension of the tray C. thickness of the tray D. none of the above Answer: overextension of the tray Q18: Before an accurate face-bow transfer record can be made on a patient, which of the following must be determined? A. the inclination of each condyle B. vertical dimension of occlusion C. centric relation D. location of the hinge axis point Answer: location of the hinge axis point — axial center of opening-closing Q19: A plaster index is used to: A. maintain the vertical dimension of occlusion B. maintain bite registration C. preserve the face-bow transfer D. all of the above Answer: preserve the face-bow transfer Q20: A generalized speech difficulty with complete dentures is usually caused by which of the following? Select all that apply. A. faulty tooth position B. excess vertical dimension of occlusion C. faulty palatal contours D. faulty occlusion Answer: faulty tooth position, faulty palatal contours Q21: At the first appointment after insertion of complete dentures, the presence of generalized soreness on the crest of the mandibular ridge is most likely due to: A. the newness of the denture B. defective tissue registration C. premature occlusal contacts D. incomplete polymerization of the denture base Answer: premature occlusal contacts Q22: The inferior surface of the maxillary occlusal rim should be parallel to: A. Frankfort's plane B. Camper's line C. Fox plane D. the horizontal condylar inclination Answer: Camper’s line — which is an imaginary line traced from the inferior border of the ala of the nose to the tragus of the ear Q23: The most frequent cause of porosities in a denture is: A. insufficient pressure on the flask during processing B. insufficient material in the mold C. a rapid elevation in temperature to 212°F causing vaporization of the liquid D. insufficient time for processing Answer: insufficient pressure on the flask during processing Q24: All of the following are disadvantages to immediate denture therapy. Which one is considered to be the major disadvantage to immediate denture therapy? A. increased post-insertion care B. increased post-insertion soreness C. not being able to have an anterior tooth try-in to evaluate esthetics D. greater complexity of clinical procedures E. a higher cost of treatment Answer: not being able to have an anterior tooth try-in to evaluate esthetics Q25: All of the following statements are true concerning a face-bow or a face-bow transfer EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. the face-bow is a caliper-like device used to record the patient's maxilla/hinge axis relationship (opening and closing axis) B. if the transfer is done properly, the arc of closure on the articulator should duplicate that exhibited by the patient C. the face-bow transfer is a maxillo-mandibular record D. the face-bow transfer is used to transfer the maxilla/hinge axis relationship to the articulator during the mounting of the maxillary cast Answer: the face-bow transfer is a maxillo-mandibular record Q26: The posterior palatal seal for a maxillary denture: A. is placed 3 mm posterior to the vibrating line B. is not necessary when fabricating a complete denture on a patient with a flat palate C. is not necessary if a metal base is used D. will vary in outline and depth according to the palatal form of the patient Answer: will vary in outline and depth according to the palatal form of the patient Q27: All of the following are functions of the posterior palatal seal EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. enhances the support of the maxillary denture B. compensates for polymerization shrinkage during processing C. prevents food impaction beneath maxillary denture D. completes the border seal of the maxillary denture Answer: enhances the support of the maxillary denture Q28: All of the following are morphological changes associated with the edentulous state EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. deepening of nasolabial groove B. loss of labiodental angle C. retrognathic appearance D. decrease in horizontal labial angle E. narrowing of lips F. increase in columella-philtral angle Answer: retrognathic appearance Q29: In metal-ceramic restorations, failure or fracture usually occurs at the porcelain-metal interface rather than in the porcelain. The combination of porcelain and metal, fused together, is stronger than porcelain alone. A. both statements are true B. both statements are false C. the first statement is true, the second is false D. the first statement is false, the second is true Answer: the first statement is false, the second is true Q30: The strength of a solder joint is proportional to its: A. porosity B. thickness C. surface area D. all of the above Answer: surface area Q31: ___________ says that the combined root surface area of the abutment should equal or be greater than that of the teeth being replaced by pontics. A. John's Law B. Ante's Law C. Dawson's Law D. Johnson's Law Answer: Ante's Law Q32: Endodontically treated teeth that have been restored with a cast post and core, and crown, are subjected to the high incidence of _______. The main symptom will almost always be __________. The radiograph usually appears _______. A. periodontal disease, pain when drinking cold fluids, normal B. recurrent caries, nagging pain, abnormal C. vertical root fracture, pain when biting, normal D. the need for an apicoectomy, a throbbing pain, abnormal Answer: vertical root fracture, pain when biting, normal Q33: All of the following are contraindications for porcelain veneers EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. traumatic occlusal contacts B. unfavorable morphology C. the severe imbrication of teeth D. reduction of spacing in cases when orthodontics would be inappropriate E. insufficient tooth structure F. insufficient enamel Answer: reduction of spacing in cases when orthodontics would be inappropriate Q34: The absolute maximum number of posterior teeth, which can be safely replaced with a fixed bridge, is: A. one B. two C. three D. four Answer: three — and three teeth should be replaced only under ideal conditions *** Any bridge replacing more than two teeth should be considered high risk Q35: An extracoronal metal restoration that covers only part of the clinical crown is considered to be a partial veneer crown. Which of the following is the most commonly used form of the partial veneer crowns? A. pinledges B. seven-eighths crown C. modified three-quarter crown D. three-quarter crown Answer: three-quarter crown Q36: Noble alloys (gold, platinum, and palladium) do not oxidize on casting. Porcelain adheres to metal primarily by a mechanical bond. A. both statements are true B. both statements are false C. the first statement is true, the second is false D. the first statement is false, the second is true Answer: the first statement is true, the second is false Q37: Periodontal health of the gingival tissues is a major concern when planning any fixed prosthodontic treatment. For optimum periodontal health, restoration finish lines should be: A. within the sulcus at least 1.0 mm and away from the free gingival margin without encroaching on the biologic width B. terminated at the free gingival margin C. supragingival whenever possible (at least 0.5 mm from the free gingival margin) to allow for hygienic cleansing D. as far as possible subgingivally into the attachment apparatus Answer: supragingival whenever possible (at least 0.5 mm from the free gingival margin) to allow for hygienic cleansing Q38: When casting base metal alloys for metal-ceramic crowns, which type of investment material is used? A. silica-bonded investments B. phosphate-bonded investments C. gypsum-bonded investments D. none of the above Answer: phosphate-bonded investments Q39: All of the following statements regarding metal-ceramic restorations are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. the metal and porcelain must have compatible melting temperatures as well as compatible coefficient of thermal expansions B. the metal's melting temperature should be at least 300-500°F higher than the fusing temperature of the porcelain C. the metal coping should preferably have sharp surfaces to prevent shrinkage of the porcelain D. in function, glazed porcelain on the occlusal surface removes 40 times as much of the opposing tooth structure than gold Answer: the metal coping should preferably have sharp surfaces to prevent shrinkage of the porcelain Q40: When preparing a tooth for either a full- or partial-veneer casting, the functional cusp bevel is an integral part of the occlusal reduction phase. The functional cusp bevel: A. enhances resistance form when buccal-to-lingual forces are applied B. serves as a positive stop when the casting is seated during cementation C. relieves the functional cusp from additional stresses when the restoration is loaded in the long axis of the tooth D. provides space for restorative material of adequate thickness in an area of heavy occlusal contact Answer: provides space for restorative material of adequate thickness in an area of heavy occlusal contact Q41: The preparation for a full veneer crown is begun with occlusal reduction. There should be ______ clearance on the functional cusps and about ______ on the non-functional cusps. A. 0.5 mm; 1.0 mm B. 1.5 mm; 1.0 mm C. 2.0 mm; 1.5 mm D. 2.5 mm; 2.0 mm Answer: 2.0 mm; 1.5 mm Q42: The surface hardness, strength, and proportional limit of the metal are decreased with strain hardening, whereas the ductility and resistance to corrosion are increased. However, the elastic modulus is not changed appreciably. A. both statements are true B. both statements are false C. the first statement is true, the second is false D. the first statement is false, the second is true Answer: the first statement is false, the second is true Q43: Which of the following best describes the term "quenching"? A. a metal is elevated to a temperature above room temperature and held there for a length of time B. a metal is rapidly cooled from an elevated temperature to room temperature or below C. softening a metal by controlled heating and cooling D. none of the above Answer: a metal is rapidly cooled from an elevated temperature to room temperature or below  Q44: Any alloy with a casting temperature in excess of _______ should be cast in an investment with a binder other than gypsum. A. 750°F (398°C) B. 1000°F (537°C) C. 1500°F (815°C) D. 2100°F (1150°C) Answer: 2100°F (1150°C) Q45: The path of insertion for an anterior ¾ crown should: A. be perpendicular to the incisal one-half of the labial surface rather than the long axis of the tooth B. be parallel to the incisal one-half to two-thirds of the labial surface rather than the long axis of the tooth C. be parallel to the long axis of the tooth D. be parallel to the cervical one-third of the labial surface rather than the long axis of the tooth Answer: be parallel to the incisal one-half to two-thirds of the labial surface rather than the long axis of the tooth Q46: When treatment planning for fixed prosthodontics, all of the following information can be obtained by studying diagnostic casts EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. the length of the abutment teeth can be accurately gauged B. the true inclination of the abutment teeth will be evident C. the crown-to-root ratio of potential abutment teeth D. mesial/distal drifting, rotation, and faciolingual displacement of potential abutment teeth can be clearly seen Answer: the crown-to-root ratio of potential abutment teeth Q47: The tip of a pontic is usually made to contact gingival tissue. If the part of a pontic contacting the gingiva is made from a material that is chemically active or collects debris, inflammation will probably result. Place the following materials in order for their acceptability to the soft tissue (#1 being the most acceptable). glazed porcelain polished acrylic polished gold unglazed porcelain 1. glazed porcelain 2. polished gold 3. unglazed porcelain 4. polished acrylic Q48: A ratio of _____ is the minimum ratio that is acceptable for a prospective abutment under normal circumstances. A. 3:1 B. 2:1 C. 1:2 D. 1:1 Answer: 1:1 Q49: To be biologically and mechanically acceptable, a solder joint should be so formed that it: A. fills the entire interproximal space occlusogingivally B. extends to the buccal margin of the retainer C. is circular in form and occupies the region of the contact area D. is thin occlusogingivally and wide buccolingually Answer: is circular in form and occupies the region of the contact area Q50: What type of pontic design looks most like a tooth? A. the saddle-ridge-lap pontic B. the sanitary (hygienic) pontic C. the modified ridge-lap pontic D. an ovate pontic Answer: the saddle-ridge-lap pontic Q51: Resin cements are the least soluble of all dental cements. The solubility of the hydrophobic resins is inversely proportional to the resin content. A. both statements are true B. both statements are false C. the first statement is true, the second is false D. the first statement is false, the second is true Answer: both statements are true Q52: All of the following describe properties of an ideal cement Except one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. long working time B. short setting time C. Low pulpal irritation D. high film thickness E. low solubility F. low microleakage G. high retention Answer: high film thickness Q53: Which of the following is often the margin of choice as it leaves adequate bulk for marginal strength with an acute angle and produces minimal stress at the margin? A. shoulder B. shoulder with a bevel C. chamfer D. knife edge Answer: chamfer Q54: All of the following statements about the sprue design used in the centrifugal technique are correct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. solid plastic sprues are preferred for most of the castings B. auxiliary sprues are recommended when casting thin patterns C. large-diameter sprues are generally recommended D. sprues should be attached to the bulkiest noncentric cusp Answer: solid plastic sprues are preferred for most of the castings Q55: When using a nonrigid connector such as a T-shaped key design, the dovetail keyway in the retainer should be place on the: A. distal aspect of mesial abutment B. distal distal abutment C. mesial aspect of mesial abutment D. mesial aspect of distal abument Answer: distal aspect of mesial abutment Q56: All-ceramic restorations are popular because of their superior esthetics and generally favorable gingival tissue response. The finish line of choice when fabricating an all-ceramic crown is a: A. 90 degree, 1.0 mm shoulder B. bevel C. chamfer D. 45 degree,.25 mm shoulder with a bevel Answer: 90 degree, 1.0 mm shoulder — to prevent unfavorable stress distribution and minimize the risk of fracture Q57: All of the following are indications for electrosurgery EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. to remove hyperplastic gingival tissue where it has proliferated into preparations or over crown margins B. in place of a gingival retraction cord where substantial attached gingiva is present C. where attached gingival tissues are thin, or where an underlying dehiscence is suspected D. for crown-lengthening procedures prior to fabricating a provisional crown Answer: where attached gingival tissues are thin, or where an underlying dehiscence is suspected Q58: Half-closed eyes can increase the sensitivity of retinal rods to better choose the "value" of the color. "Blue" fatigue accentuates "yellow" sensitivity. This means that if you look at blue color objects (drapes, charts, wall-color or any other object around) while selecting the shade, it will help to accentuate the ability to discriminate yellow shades. A. both statements are true B. both statements are false C. the first statement is true, the second is false D. the first statement is false, the second is true Answer: both statements are true Q59: The molten alloy used for dental restorations shrink upon solidification: gold by approximately _____ and nickel-chromium alloys by as much as _____. If the mold is not made correspondingly larger than the original wax pattern, the resultant casting will be that much smaller. A..5%,.75% B. 1%, 1.5% C. 1.5%, 2.4% D. 2.5%, 3.5% Answer: 1.5%, 2.4% Q60: A seven-eighths crown is a three-quarter crown whose vertical: A. mesiobuccal margin is positioned slightly distal to the middle of the buccal surface B. distobuccal margin is positioned slightly mesial to the middle of the buccal surface C. mesiolingual margin is positioned slightly distal to the middle of the lingual surface D. distolingual margin is positioned slightly mesial to the middle of the lingual surface Answer: distobuccal margin is positioned slightly mesial to the middle of the buccal surface Q61: Which type of dental ceramic is the best in mimicking the optical properties of enamel and dentin? A. predominantly glass B. particle-filled glass C. polycrystalline Answer: predominantly glass Q62: The _______ in the composition of base metal alloys is responsible for ductility of the alloy. A. nickel B. cobalt C. chromium D. magnesium Answer: nickel Q63: All of the following are resins used for fabricating provisional restorations EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. polymethyl methacrylate B. polyethyl methacrylate C. polyvinyl methacrylate D. polyacryl methacrylate E. bis-acryl composite resin F. visible light-cured (VLC) urethane dimethacrylate Answer: polyacryl methacrylate Q64: Which gypsum type has the lowest percentage of expansion? A. type I B. type II C. type III D. type IV E. type V Answer: type IV Q65: In mixing dental stone, why should the powder be sprinkled onto the water in the bowl? A. the addition of powder prevents the mix from becoming exothermic B. this is not recommended; the water should be added to the powder C. this process results in better powder mixing and reduced chance for air bubbles D. the powder is added to the water to avoid using more than one bowl Answer: this process results in better powder mixing and reduced chance for air bubbles Q66: The main chemical constituent of dental laboratory plaster, as supplied, is: A. calcium sulfate B. calcium sulfate dihydrate C. calcium sulfate hemihydrate D. anhydrous calcium sulfate Answer: calcium sulfate hemihydrate Q67: Dental plaster and stone are vibrated after mixing to: A. minimize distortion B. reduce setting time C. eliminate air bubbles D. increase the setting time Answer: eliminate air bubbles Q68: Dental stone is produced by: A. heating gypsum in an open vessel at 150-160°C B. heating gypsum under steam pressure in an autoclave at 120-150°C C. by boiling gypsum in a 30% aqueous solution of calcium chloride and magnesium chloride D. none of the above Answer: heating gypsum under steam pressure in an autoclave at 120-150°C Q69: Dr. Lozier requested that you mix alginate and take an impression. While measuring the water, you got involved in a conversation with your patient and did not notice how hot it was. This oversight will: A. shorten the gelation time B. make the mix unusable C. lengthen the gelation time D. not affect the gelation time Answer: shorten the gelation time Q70: Which one of the following impression materials is elastic, sets by a chemical reaction, and does not produce by-products during the reaction? A. polyvinyl siloxanes B. polysulfides C. polyethers D. condensation silicones Answer: polyethers Q71: All of the following impression materials set by a stepwise polymerization reaction EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. polysulfides B. condensation silicones C. polyethers D. polyvinyl siloxanes Answer: polyvinyl siloxanes Q72: Which of the following impression materials is inelastic, sets by a chemical reaction, and involves an acid- base setting mechanism? A. alginate B. agar-Agar C. zinc Oxide Eugenol D. impression plaster Answer: zinc Oxide Eugenol Q73: Which one of the following impression materials is elastic, sets by a physical reaction, and is subject to syneresis and imbibition? A. irreversible hydrocolloids B. reversible hydrocolloids C. polysulfides D. polyethers Answer: reversible hydrocolloids Q74: The filler in alginate gives the mixed material "body" that allows acceptable handling. Without filler, the mixed material would be too runny for use. Which of the following is a main component of the alginate powder and functions as the filler? A. zinc oxide B. calcium sulfate C. potassium titanium fluoride D. diatomaceous earth (silica) E. potassium alginate F. tri-sodium phosphate Answer: diatomaceous earth (silica) Q75: Alginate impressions can distort quickly if they gain or lose moisture. Alginate impressions are wrapped in wet paper towels to serve as humidors to prevent dimensional changes. A. both statements are true B. both statements are false C. the first statement is true, the second is false D. the first statement is false, the second is true Answer: both statements are true Q76: Which impression material has the greatest tear strength? A. polyethers B. polysulfides C. hydrocolloids (reversible and irreversible) D. polyvinyl siloxanes Answer: polysulfides Q77: Which of the following types of materials is routinely supplied as an automixing system? Select all that apply. A. Polyethers B. Polysulfides C. Condensation silicones D. Polyvinyl siloxanes Answer: Polyvinyl siloxanes Q78: Which of the following represents a major downfall of irreversible hydrocolloids compared to polyvinyl siloxane? A. ease of use B. working time C. dimensional stability D. patient reaction Answer: dimensional stability Q79: Some impression materials are most accurate when at least 3 mm of space is present between the impression tray and the oral tissue. Which impression material below shows this characteristic? A. polyethers B. polysulfides C. silicones D. irreversible hydrocolloids Answer: irreversible hydrocolloids – alginate Q80: Today was a very busy day for Ashley, the dental hygienist in our office. Ashley took alginate impressions on her first patient in the morning, who needed a night-guard. Since she was so busy, Ashley left the alginate impressions in the lab most of the morning. Ashley decided to place the impressions in a bowl of water so that they would not dry up before she had a chance to pour them up in dental stone. Which of the following was the result of Ashley leaving these impressions immersed in water for a few hours? A. gelation B. hysteresis C. syneresis D. imbibition Answer: imbibition Q81: If your patient indicates a tendency to gag while taking alginate impressions, which of the following maneuvers can help make the procedure easier for the patient. Select all that apply. A. lessening the time to take an impression B. using cold water to mix the alginate C. Having the patient breathe through his/her nose D. seating the patient in an upright position E. seating the anterior portion of the tray first F. mixing the alginate rapidly Answer: lessening the time to take an impression having the patient breathe through his/her nose seating the patient in an upright position mixing the alginate rapidly Q82: What is the typical level of filler (weight percent) in heavy bodied impression materials? A. 15% B. 30% C. 45% D. 60% Answer: 60% Q83: Custom trays are an important part of rubber base impression techniques, since elastomers are: A. more accurate in uniform, thin layers 0.5 to 1.0 mm thick B. more accurate in uniform, thin layers 1.0 to 1.5 mm thick C. more accurate in uniform, thin layers 2.0 to 4.0 mm thick D. more accurate in uniform, thin layers 5.0 to 6.0 mm thick Answer: more accurate in uniform, thin layers 2.0 to 4.0 mm thick Q84: Polysulfide impression materials should be: A. poured immediately B. poured within 15 minutes C. poured within 30 minutes D. poured within 1 hour Answer: poured within 1 hour Q85: After completing a crown preparation on one of your favorite patients, you fabricate a provisional restoration using an PMMA acrylic resin using the direct technique. After mixing the polymer and monomer in a 1:1 ratio and placing the stint back into the patients mouth, which of the following will occur: A. an endothermic reaction will occur during polymerization B. excessive polymerization shrinkage will take place C. benzoyl peroxide will act as a reaction inhibitor D. the molecular weight of the polymer will not affect the hardness of the resin Answer: excessive polymerization shrinkage will take place Q86: An edentulous patient has slight undercuts on both tuberosities and also on the facial of the anterior maxilla. To construct a satisfactory maxillary complete denture, you should reduce which of the following? A. all undercuts B. the anterior undercut only C. both tuberosity undercuts D. none of them Answer: both tuberosity undercuts Q87: Hinge-type or rotary motions take place in which compartment of the TMJ? A. upper (mandibular fossa - articular disc) compartment B. lower (condyle - articular disc) C. both the upper and lower compartments Answer: lower (condyle - articular disc) Q88: Which semiadjustable articulator has the upper and lower members rigidly attached? A. arcon articulator B. nonarcon articulator Answer: nonarcon articulator Q89: You are ready to place packing cord around a tooth that was prepared for a crown on a patient with hypertension. It is recommended to use a cord impregnated with: A. epinephrine B. alum (aluminum potassium sulfate) C. zinc chloride D. any of the above Answer: alum (aluminum potassium sulfate) Q90: The ________ is a thin cleft between the ________ and the ________. A. maxillary tuberosity, hamulus, fovea palatini B. hamular notch, maxillary tuberosity, hamulus C. hamulus, maxillary tuberosity, hamular notch D. fovea palatini, hamulus, hamular notch Answer: hamular notch, maxillary tuberosity, Hamulus Q91: The torus palatinus is a hard bony enlargement that occurs in the midline of the roof of the mouth and is found in about: A. 2% of the population B. 20% of the population C. 50% of the population D. 75% of the population Answer: 20% of the population Q92: Which of the following is the most important reason for treatment of hyperplastic tissue before construction of a complete or removable partial denture? A. it will make the patient feel better B. it will make the face-bow transfer easier to perform C. to provide a firm, stable base for the denture D. the final impression material will flow better Answer: to provide a firm, stable base for the denture Q93: When inflammatory papillary hyperplasia is seen on the palate of a patient wearing a maxillary complete denture, the condition is most likely going to be associated with: A. a vitamin B deficiency B. a sudden increase in body weight C. a hypersensitivity of the patient to the acrylic denture base D. ill-fitting dentures and a poor state of oral hygiene Answer: ill-fitting dentures and a poor state of oral hygiene Q94: The most common cause of dry mouth (xerostomia) is: A. aging B. alcoholism C. vitamin A or Vitamin B deficiency D. medications E. diabetes Answer: medications Q95: Which of the following conditions is caused by a chronically ill-fitting denture? A. mucocele B. myxoma C. acanthosis nigricans D. epulis fissuratum Answer: epulis fissuratum Q96: Most cases of which disease below are detected because patients complain that their dentures are not fitting since the bone has become too large for them? A. Addison disease B. Paget disease C. Hashimoto disease D. multiple sclerosis Answer: Paget disease Q97: All of the following are associated with diabetes EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. delayed healing B. rapidly progressing periodontal disease with marked alveolar bone loss C. mucosal bleeding D. increased calculus formation E. a predilection for periapical abscesses Answer: mucosal bleeding—bleeding disorders are not associated with diabetes Q98: After seating a new crown on tooth #19 you need to check excursive movements. You ask the patient to slide her jaw to the right to make sure there are contacts on #19 during this movement. What muscle does the patient use to move her jaw like this? A. left medial pterygoid muscle B. right medial pterygoid muscle C. left lateral pterygoid muscle D. right lateral pterygoid muscle Answer: left lateral pterygoid muscle Q99: Assume that a patient wearing complete dentures for a number of years is given an oral examination and it is determined that the vertical dimension of occlusion has been decreased. This would cause: A. an increased vertical dimension that leaves the teeth in a clenched, closed relation in normal positions B. an occluding vertical dimension that results in an excessive interocclusal distance when the mandible is in the rest position C. an insufficient amount of interarch distance because of heavy, bony ridges D. an inability to open the mandible because of temporomandibular joint pathosis Answer: an occluding vertical dimension that results in an excessive interocclusal distance when the mandible is in the rest position Q100: The function of the compensating curve is: A. to aid in establishing an incisal guide plane B. the same as the function of the curve of Spee C. to help provide a balanced occlusion in complete dentures when the mandible is protruded D. none of the above Answer: to help provide a balanced occlusion in complete dentures when the mandible is protruded Q101: The centric relation (CR) is the most unstrained, retruded anatomic and functional position of the heads of the condyles or the mandible in the ____ of the temporomandibular joints. This is a relationship of the _____ of the upper and lower jaws _____ tooth contact. The presence or absence of teeth, or the type of occlusion or malocclusion, _____ factors. A. mandibular fossae/ bones/independent of/are not B. mandibular foramen/teeth/dependent on/are C. mandibular fossae/bones/dependent on/are D. mandibular fossae/teeth/dependent on/are E. mandibular foramen/bones/independent of/are not Answer: mandibular fossae/ bones/independent of/are not Q102: Which of the following statements concerning selective grinding in complete denture fabrication for centric relation is not true? A. primary centric holding cusps are the maxillary lingual cusps B. secondary centric holding cusps are the mandibular buccal cusps C. selective grinding of the inner inclines of secondary holding cusps can be done if there is a working side interference D. grind only the cusp tips of the upper buccal and the lower lingual (B.U.L.L.) cusps if they are premature in centric, lateral or protrusive movements Answer: selective grinding of the inner inclines of secondary holding cusps can be done if there is a working side interference—this is incorrect, the selective grinding of the inner inclines of secondary centric holding cusps can be done if there is a balancing side interference Q103: Working side interferences generally occur on the outer aspects of the: A. facial cusps of mandibular molars B. facial cusps of maxillary premolars C. lingual cusps of maxillary molars D. facial cusps of maxillary molars Answer: lingual cusps of maxillary molars Q104: Where do the occlusal contact possibilities occur during a protrusive movement? A. on the maxillary mesial inclines and mandibular distal inclines B. on the maxillary mesial inclines and mandibular mesial inclines C. on the maxillary distal inclines and mandibular mesial inclines D. on the maxillary distal inclines and mandibular distal inclines Answer: on the maxillary distal inclines and mandibular mesial inclines Q105: Which of the following best describes Camper's line (plane)? A. it is a line (plane) which is determined by the occlusal surfaces of the teeth B. it is a line (plane) which extends from the outer canthus of the eye to the superior border of the tragus of the ear C. it is the line (plane) running from the inferior border of the ala of the nose to the superior border of the tragus of the ear D. none of the above Answer: it is the line (plane) running from the inferior border of the ala of the nose to the superior border of the tragus of the ear Q106: In the intercuspal position, the lingual cusp of a permanent maxillary second premolar occludes where? A. central fossa of the mandibular first molar B. distal triangular fossa of the mandibular second premolar C. distal triangular fossa of mandibular first premolar D. mesial marginal ridge of mandibular first molar and distal marginal ridge of mandibular second premolar Answer: distal triangular fossa of the mandibular second premolar Q107: During non-working, excursive movements, the permanent maxillary first molar's mesiolingual cusp escapes through: A. the lingual groove of the mandibular first molar B. the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar C. the buccal groove of the mandibular second molar D. the distobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar E. the space between the mesiobuccal and distobuccal cusps of the mandibular first molar Answer: the distobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar Q108: A 22-year-old female dental student comes into your dental practice for a regular check-up. She states that she has never had any problems with her teeth, and upon examination you notice that only one pair of teeth seem to have contact during lateral movements of the mandible. Which teeth should ideally provide the predominant guidance through the full range of movement in lateral mandibular excursions? A. premolars B. first molars C. incisors D. canines Answer: canines Q109: When establishing a balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on the balancing side should contact: A. the central fossae of mandibular posterior teeth B. the lingual inclines of facial cusps of mandibular posterior teeth C. the lingual inclines of lingual cusps of mandibular posterior teeth D. the facial inclines of lingual cusps of mandibular posterior teeth Answer: the lingual inclines of facial cusps of mandibular posterior teeth Q110: In an ideal intercuspal position, the facial cusp tips of permanent maxillary premolars oppose: A. the facial embrasure between their class counterpart and the tooth mesial to it B. the facial embrasure between their class counterpart and the tooth distal to it C. the opposing central fossae D. the opposing mesial marginal ridge Answer: the facial embrasure between their class counterpart and the tooth distal to it Q111: In the intercuspal position, the mesiobuccal cusp of a permanent mandibular first molar occludes where? A. mesial marginal ridge of maxillary first molar and distal marginal ridge of second premolar B. central fossa of the maxillary first molar C. distal fossa of the maxillary first molar D. the interproximal marginal ridge area between the maxillary first molar and second molar Answer: mesial marginal ridge of maxillary first molar and distal marginal ridge of second premolar Q112: During a lateral movement of the mandible, the working condyle moves _____, _____, and _____. A. downward, forward, medially B. downward, forward, laterally C. upward, forward, medially D. upward, forward, laterally Answer: downward, forward, laterally Q113: In the diagram below of Posselt's envelope of mandibular motion, which line segments make up the posterior border movements of the mandible? A. PR-T and ICP-RCP B. RCP-R and PR-T C. R-T and ICP-RCP D. RCP-R and R-T Answer: RCP-R and R-T Q114: Mandibular movements from centric occlusion are guided by maxillary teeth. Occlusal interference exists if tooth contact occurs where teeth should be disengaged. A. the first statement is true, the second is false B. the first statement is false, the second is true C. both statements are true D. both statements are false Answer: both statements are true Q115: When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or postural position, the contact of teeth is: A. maximum B. not present C. premature D. slight Answer: not present Q116: Bite registration material used to make an accurate interocclusal record should have what important characteristic? A. offer a maximum resistance to the patient's jaw closure and have high flow at mixing B. offer a maximum resistance to the patient's jaw closure and have low flow at mixing C. offer a minimum resistance to the patient's jaw closure and have low flow at mixing D. offer a minimum resistance to the patient's jaw closure and have high flow at mixing Answer: offer a minimum resistance to the patient's jaw closure and have low flow at mixing Q117: Which of the following materials available for recording centric relation when fabricating a removable partial denture is the least satisfactory? A. modeling plastic B. wax C. quick-setting impression plaster D. metallic oxide bite registration paste E. silicone impression materials Answer: wax Q118: An archaeologist consults a dentist about some findings he had on a dig. The teeth the archaeologist finds have four cusps - two of them taller and pointed, two of them shorter, rounded, and dull. The dentist tells the archaeologist that these teeth are similar to our human molars. The broader, more rounded cusps are: A. non-supporting and working B. supporting and balancing C. supporting and working D. non-supporting and balancing Answer: supporting and working Q119: Anterior guidance (anterior coupling) is the guidance provided by the anterior teeth when the mandible goes into a lateral or protrusive movement. If anterior guidance can be accomplished, the least amount of force will be placed on the posterior teeth during lateral and protrusive movements. A. both statements are true B. both statements are false C. the first statement is true, the second is false D. the first statement is false, the second is true Answer: both statements are true Q120: All of the following concepts related to occlusion are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. optimum occlusion requires minimum adaptation by the patient B. bilateral balanced occlusion dictates that a minimum number of teeth should contact during mandibular excursive movements C. unilateral balanced occlusion or "group function" calls for all teeth on the working side to be in contact during a lateral excursion D. mutually protected occlusion, also called "canine guided" or "organic" occlusion is the one in which anterior teeth protect posterior teeth in all mandibular excursions E. mutually protected occlusion is the most widely accepted arrangement of occlusion Answer: bilateral balanced occlusion dictates that a minimum number of teeth should contact during mandibular excursive movements Q121: The determinant factors of occlusion include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. the temporomandibular joint B. the masticatory muscles C. the tongue and buccal mucosa position D. the biomechanics of the temporomandibular joint E. the dentition and the occlusal table Answer: the tongue and buccal mucosa position Q122: All of the following are considered to be the basic principles for occlusal adjustment EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. the maximum distribution of occlusal stresses in centric relation B. the forces of occlusion should be borne as much as possible by the long axis of the teeth C. when there is point-to-surface contact of flat cusps, it should be changed to a surface-to-surface contact D. once centric occlusion is established, never take the teeth out of centric occlusion Answer: when there is point-to-surface contact of flat cusps, it should be changed to a surface-to- surface contact Q123: In an ideal intercuspal position, the oblique ridge of the maxillary first molar opposes the: A. the distobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar B. the buccal groove of the mandibular second molar C. the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar D. the distobuccal developmental groove (located between the distobuccal and distal cusps of the mandibular first molar) Answer: the distobuccal developmental groove (located between the distobuccal and distal cusps of the mandibular first molar) Q124: In lateral mandibular movements, the condyle appears to rotate in the horizontal plane with a slight lateral shift in the direction of the movement. What is this movement called? A. Bennett movement B. posterior border movement C. condylar movement D. opening movement Answer: Bennett movement Q125: A dental student is finalizing the temporary crown he fabricated for his patient. The patient's occlusion is in an ideal relationship, and the crown has ideal centric contacts. The student has a bad habit of forgetting about working and balancing contacts. He does remember the rule that he should avoid laterotrusive contacts on the guiding cusps on posterior teeth. Which two of the following are considered to be guiding cusps? A. maxillary lingual cusps B. maxillary buccal cusps C. mandibular lingual cusps D. mandibular buccal cusps Answer: maxillary buccal cusps, mandibular lingual cusps Q126: The "Glossary of Prosthodontic Terms" defines balanced occlusion as: A. an occlusion of the teeth which presents a harmonious relation of the occluding surfaces in centric only within the functional range B. an occlusion of the teeth which presents a harmonious relation of the occluding surfaces in eccentric positions only within the functional range C. an occlusion of the teeth which presents a harmonious relation of the occluding surfaces in centric and eccentric positions within the functional range Answer: an occlusion of the teeth which presents a harmonious relation of the occluding surfaces in centric and eccentric positions within the functional range Q127: Reducing occlusal interferences (selective grinding) should usually be done: A. after a fixed bridge or a partial denture is delivered to a patient B. before constructing a fixed bridge or a partial denture for a patient C. after a fixed bridge but before a partial denture is delivered to a patient D. after a partial denture but before a fixed bridge is delivered to a patient Answer: before constructing a fixed bridge or a partial denture for a patient Q128: Prolonged sensitivity to heat, cold, and pressure after cementation of a crown or a fixed bridge is usually related to: A. recurrent decay B. a periodontal problem C. occlusal trauma D. an open margin Answer: occlusal trauma Q129: All of the following are the signs of unstable occlusion EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. joint pain B. broken and worn teeth C. muscle pain D. mobile teeth E. gagging Answer: gagging Q130: Condylar guidance is a factor which: A. is totally controlled by the dentist B. is totally dictated by the patient C. is partially dictated by the patient but can be adjusted by the dentist if necessary D. can be adjusted by the laboratory technician Answer: is totally dictated by the patient Q131: Decreased vertical dimension of occlusion refers to an occluding vertical dimension that results in: A. a loss of interocclusal distance when the mandible is in the rest position (decreased freeway space) B. an excessive interocclusal distance when the mandible is in the rest position (increased freeway space) C. neither of the above, vertical dimension of occlusion does not affect interocclusal distance Answer: an excessive interocclusal distance when the mandible is in the rest position (increased freeway space) Q132: Which jaw position is a muscle-guided position? A. centric occlusion (CO) B. centric relation (CR) C. rest position of the mandible D. none of the above Answer: rest position of the mandible Q133: All of the following statements concerning the functionally generated pathway technique are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. a prerequisite for the use of this technique for the restoration of a single tooth is the presence of a Class III occlusion B. this technique allows the cuspal movements of the dentition to be recorded in wax intraorally and transferred to the articulator in the form of a static plaster cast C. this static plaster cast is also called the functional index D. by registering the pathways of the opposing tooth surfaces during mandibular movements, the technique allows a laboratory technician to provide a restoration with an occlusal surface less likely to incorporate occlusal interferences Answer: a prerequisite for the use of this technique for the restoration of a single tooth is the presence of a Class III occlusion Q134: Regarding the occlusion of a complete denture: (A) A decreased vertical dimension of occlusion refers to excessive interocclusal distance (increased freeway space) (B) A decreased vertical dimension of occlusion refers to the loss of interocclusal distance in the rest position (C) An excessive vertical dimension frequently results in cheek biting (D) An excessive vertical dimension is the usual cause of clicking of teeth (E) Phonetics helps in verifying the vertical dimension of occlusion (F) Esthetics helps in verifying the vertical dimension of occlusion A. (A), (C), and (E) are true B. (B), (D), and (F) are true C. (A), (C), (E) and (F) are true D. (B), (C), (E) and (F) are true E. (A), (D), (E) and (F) are true F. all of the above statements are true Answer: (A), (D), (E) and (F) are true Q135: In mutually protected occlusion, the centric relation coincides with the maximum intercuspation position. There is maximum contact of posterior teeth in lateral or protrusive movements. A. the first statement is true, the second is false B. the first statement is false, the second is true C. both statements are true D. both statements are false Answer: the first statement is true, the second is false Q136: Dental porcelain has good biocompatibility, but is very brittle. The compressive strength of ceramic bodies is greater than either their tensile or their shear strength. A. the first statement is true, the second is false B. both statements are false C. both statements are true D. the first statement is false, the second is true Answer: both statements are true Q137: How does porcelain chemically bond to metal? A. wetting of the porcelain onto the metal surface B. mixing of oxidized metal layers with porcelain oxides C. interposition of an intermediate metal layer D. mixing of the metal atoms with the porcelain structure Answer: mixing of oxidized metal layers with porcelain oxides Q138: A patient presents to your office after a recent cementation of a porcelain crown on #9 saying that the new crown appears too dark compared to the adjacent teeth. The color property she is probably referring to is: A. intensity B. chroma C. hue D. value Answer: value Q139: Teeth that appear to be color matched under one type of light may appear very different under another light source. This phenomenon is called: A. opaqueness B. metamerism C. fluorescence D. opalescence Answer: metamerism Q140: Glazed porcelain is: A. not as durable in its surface characteristics as an over-glazed porcelain B. nonporous, resists abrasion, possesses esthetic ability and is well tolerated by the gingiva C. obtained by heating the previously fired body very slowly for 60 minutes at its fusing temperature D. all of the above Answer: nonporous, resists abrasion, possesses esthetic ability and is well tolerated by the gingiva Q141: High-fusing porcelain is usually used for the manufacture of: A. metal-ceramic crowns B. all ceramic crowns C. denture teeth D. all of the above Answer: denture teeth Q142: Degassing of the metal at too high a temperature will affect the formation of the oxide layer, which is important in bonding of the porcelain. The number of bubbles formed at the interface increases as the time and temperature of degassing are increased. A. the first statement is true, the second is false B. both statements are false C. both statements are true D. the first statement is false, the second is true Answer: both statements are false Q143: Feldspars are used in the preparation of many dental types of porcelain designed for porcelain fused to metal (PFM) restorations. The most important property of feldspar is its tendency to form the crystalline mineral leucite when melted. A. the first statement is true, the second is false B. both statements are false C. both statements are true D. the first statement is false, the second is true Answer: both statements are true Q144: Sintering of a ceramic: A. decreases its mechanical strength B. results in an increase in porosity C. involves heating the raw materials above the melting point D. increases its density Answer: increases its density Q145: How would you classify a removable partial denture in which a portion of the functional load is carried by the residual ridge at one end of the denture base segment while the other end of the base segment is supported by natural teeth? A. a unilateral distal extension removable partial denture B. a bilateral distal extension removable partial denture C. a tooth-borne removable partial denture D. none of the above Answer: a unilateral distal extension removable partial denture Q146: The major connecter is: A. the unit of a partial denture that connects the parts of the prosthesis located on one side of the arch with those on the opposite side B. the part of the denture base which extends from the necks of the teeth to the border of the denture C. the connecting tang between the denture and other units of the prosthesis D. none of the above Answer: the unit of a partial denture that connects the parts of the prosthesis located on one side of the arch with those on the opposite side Q147: When designing an anterior-posterior palatal bar maxillary major connector, the anterior, posterior, and lateral straps should be about: A. 8-10 mm wide B. 6-8 mm wide C. 2-4 mm wide D. at least 12 mm wide Answer: 6-8 mm wide — this allows for adequate strength while allowing for maximum tissue exposure both over the palate and in the area of the marginal gingiva Q148: Which of the following guidelines should be followed while designing the lingual bar major connector? preferred if there is a vertical height of not less than 8 mm between the floor of mouth and the free gingival margin A. all of the above B. it should have a vertical height of at least 4 mm C. it should be located at least 4 mm inferior to gingival margin Answer: all of the above Q149: All of the following are advantages of using a cast chromium-cobalt alloy for removable partial dentures EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. resistance to tarnish B. low material cost C. low density (weight) D. high flexibility E. high modulus of elasticity (stiffness) Answer: high flexibility Q150: The type or form of clasp is generally selected after: A. surveying the cast B. talking to the patient C. looking at the x-rays D. the initial try-in of the metal framework Answer: surveying the cast Q151: Supra bulge retainers (clasps) originate: A. above the 0.08" undercut B. above the height of contour C. below the height of contour D. above the occlusal surface of most molars Answer: above the height of contour Q152: All of the following are advantages of infrabulge retainers as compared to suprabulge retainers EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. cleaner B. less distortion of coronal contours C. more efficient retention D. greater adjustability E. esthetically superior in most cases F. less prone to caries G. less bothersome to vestibular tissues H. less tooth contact Answer: less bothersome to vestibular tissues Q153: Which of the following indirect retainers will provide the best leverage against lifting of the denture base? A. the one located the furthest from the clasp tips which is located furthest from the edentulous area B. the one located the furthest from the clasp tips which is located nearest to the edentulous area C. the one located the closest to the clasp tips which is located furthest from the edentulous area Answer: the one located the furthest from the clasp tips which is located nearest to the edentulous area — see picture below Q154: Which of the following Kennedy classes of removable partial dentures are tooth-borne? Select all that apply. A. Class III B. Class II C. Class I D. Class IV Answer: Class III, Class IV Q155: The following partially edentulous arch would be classified as: A. Kennedy Class III B. Kennedy Class II C. Kennedy Class I D. Kennedy Class IV Answer: Kennedy Class III—unilateral edentulous area with natural teeth located both anterior and posterior Q156: What is the recommended treatment for a patient who has lost her four maxillary incisors some time ago and has suffered excessive ridge resorption? A. a removable partial denture B. no treatment C. a conventional six-unit fixed bridge D. a Maryland bridge Answer: a removable partial denture Q157: All of the following are indications for using a linguoplate as a mandibular major connector EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. for stabilizing periodontically weakened teeth B. in Class I situations in which the residual ridges have undergone excessive vertical resorption C. when the lingual frenum is high or the space available for the lingual bar is limited D. when the future replacement of one or more incisor teeth will be facilitated by the addition of retention loops to an existing linguoplate E. severe anterior crowding Answer: severe anterior crowding Q158: It is important that a wrought wire clasp have an elongation percentage of: A. less than 6%, allowing the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties B. more than 6%, allowing the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties C. more than 25%, allowing the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties D. less than 25%, allowing the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties Answer: more than 6%, allowing the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties Q159: All of the following are true regarding indirect retention EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. the function is to prevent vertical dislodgement of the distal extension base of a removable partial denture B. it is located as far anterior as possible C. it is a rest seat D. it is usually an MO rest seat on a first molar Answer: it is usually an MO rest seat on a first molar Q160: Having been formed by being drawn into a wire, the wrought-wire clasp has toughness and ductility exceeding that of a cast clasp arm. The clinical effect of this is that there is an increased capacity for deformation of the wrought-wire without breaking. A. the statement and the reason are true AND related B. the statement and the reason are true but are NOT related C. the statement is true but the reason is false D. neither the statement nor the reason are true Answer: the statement and the reason are true AND related Q161: In the mesial rest, guide plane and I-bar design, reciprocation is achieved by all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. guide planes extended around the vertical line of abutments B. minor connectors C. rigid plating D. reciprocal clasp arms E. contact areas of proximal teeth F. achieving balanced occlusion Answer: achieving balanced occlusion Q162: The primary role of partial denture rests is: A. restore the occlusion B. bracing C. reciprocation D. vertical support Answer: vertical support Q163: The retentive clasp arm should be passive (no active force) until a dislodging force is applied. In a clasp only the tip of the retentive arm should be flexible, the other components are rigid. A. the first statement is true, the second is false B. both statements are false C. both statements are true D. the first statement is false, the second is true Answer: both statements are true Q164: _______ is the ability of a removable partial denture to resist dislodging forces during function. A. adhesion B. stability C. retention D. reciprocation Answer: retention Q165: A patient of yours walks into your office with the following complaint. "When I smile, my upper denture does not hold." Which area of the denture base needs to be adjusted? A. posterior border B. buccal notch and buccal flange C. labial notch and labial flange D. distobuccal flange Answer: buccal notch and buccal flange Q166: Free end saddles are liable to be displaced under occlusal pressure (antero-posterior rocking around the abutment tooth, which acts as a pivot). This is a result of the displaceability of the mucosa. Which technique is employed to try and prevent this by taking an impression of the mucosa under controlled pressure? A. the residual ridge technique B. the altered cast technique C. the functional load technique D. the total occlusal load technique Answer: the altered cast technique Q167: Most designs of stressbreakers will rather effectively dissipate vertical forces to terminal abutments. However, this occurs at the expense of what supporting entity? A. the residual ridge B. the alveolar support of the abutment teeth C. the periodontal ligament of the abutment teeth D. all of the above Answer: the residual ridge Q168: All of the following are advantages of precision attachment restorations EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. the functional load is dispersed down the long axis of the abutments by virtue of the low central loading at the base of the attachments B. they are easy to repair C. they provide retention without an unsightly display of metal D. if both sides of the dental arch have this type of restoration and are joined by a rigid major connector, excellent bilateral stabilization is provided to the abutments E. the restorations permit the patient access to all areas of the tissues when the denture is not in place Answer: they are easy to repair Q169: When surveying casts, the clinician/technician must perform an important step in order to correctly record the path of insertion, the position of the survey line and the location of undercut and non undercut areas. Which of the following is considered to be that step? A. placing tripod marks on the cast to record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor B. the use of indelible lead marker C. the recontouring of proximal walls of abutments parallel to the path of insertion D. all of the above steps are equally important E. fixing the casts with screws on the surveying table Answer: placing tripod marks on the cast to record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor Q170: Which primary design-quality of the occlusal rest would categorize it as a "positive" rest? A. transmit stress down the long axis of the tooth B. prevent the movement of the appliance C. allow no tilting of the appliance D. have a thickness of 1.5 mm E. form acute angles with the minor connectors that connect them to the major connectors F. all of the above Answer: form acute angles with the minor connectors that connect them to the major connectors — this defines the positive rest and also permits maximum bracing Q171: The size of posterior teeth for a removable partial denture is determined primarily by which TWO of the following? A. the age of the patient B. the lip line of the patient C. the characteristics of the denture-supporting tissues D. the face-bow transfer E. the useful posterior tooth space Answer: the characteristics of the denture-supporting tissues the useful posterior tooth space Q172: A wire-gauge is selected on the basis of its active length. A short arm clasp (