NEET Level Test (21-Apr-24) Physics PDF

NEET Level Test (21- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Apr-24) 8527521718 Physics - Section A 3 The dimension of which of the...

NEET Level Test (21- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Apr-24) 8527521718 Physics - Section A 3 The dimension of which of the quantities is the same as that of electrical inductance? 1 For a particle undergoing linear simple harmonic motion Resistance 1. Capacitance (SHM), the graph showing the variation of kinetic energy, K with position, x of the particle is: 2. Resistance × Capacitance Capacitance 3. Resistance 4. (Resistance) 2 × Capacitance 1. 2. 4 Water fills a large tank with a narrow tube connected to it at the bottom: the tube is also filled with water. It is observed that water flows out of the bottom of the tube with a speed v. Assume that the flow is laminar and viscosity can be ignored. Then: 3. 4. 2 Four 6-V batteries are connected in series in order to power light bulbs A and B. The resistance of light bulb A is 40 Ω and the resistance of light bulb B is 20 Ω. 1. v 2 = 2gH H H 2. v 2 = 2g(H − 2 + ) 3 H H 3. v 2 = 2g(H + 2 2 + ) 3 H 4. v 2 = 2g(H + ) 3 5 The net work done by all forces (internal and external) How does the current through the light bulb A compare with equals the change in: the current through light bulb B? 1. potential energy 1. The current through light bulb A is less. 2. kinetic energy The current through light bulb A is equal to that through 3. total energy 2. light bulb B. 4. kinetic energy and conservative potential energy 3. The current through light bulb A is greater. 4. None of the above is true. 6 If a bar magnet of magnetic moment m is cut (divided) into four parts such that the length and width of each part is half that of the initial one, then the magnetic moment of each part will be: m m 1. 4 2. 2 m 3. 8 4. 4m Page: 1  NEET Level Test (21- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Apr-24) 8527521718 7 When someone standing still on a skateboard, starts to 11 A solid metallic sphere of radius R is taken to a depth h walk forward, what happens to the skateboard? below the surface of water (density ρ). The fractional change 1. It remains stationary. in its radius (−ΔR/R) due to compressive stress is: 2. It moves forward with the person. (Y : Young's modulus, B: Bulk modulus) 3. It moves in the direction opposite to the person's motion. 1. hρg 2. hρg Y 3Y 4. It first moves forward and then backward. hρg hρg 3. 4. B 3B 8 A simple pendulum is taken into an elevator that is moving up with an acceleration equal to g. If its time period 12 When an air bubble rises from the bottom of a lake to the was T before, the new time period will be: top, its volume (assume temperature remains constant): 1. 2T 1. decreases 2. √2T 2. increases 3. T 2 3. remains unchanged 4. T changes: it increases half-way and then decreases for the 4. √2 remaining part 9 A long solenoid of length L has a total number of turns N. It produces the same magnetic field at its centre as a long 13 A charged particle moves in a circular path of radius R in straight wire does, at a distance r: when both of them carry a uniform magnetic field B. The application of an electric the same current. Then: field E makes its path a straight line. The charge-to-mass ratio 1. r = L 2. r = L of the particle is: N 2N B E L L 1. 2. 3. r = 4. r = RE RB πN 2πN 2 E 3. E 4. 2 RB RB 10 A square coil of conducting wire having N -turns and negligible resistance is placed in a uniform magnetic field B, 14 The nuclear radius is given by R = r0 A 1/3 where r0 is that initially passes normal to its plane. The area of the coil is constant and A is the atomic mass number. Then: A, and its ends are connected by means of a resistance R. 1. The nuclear mass density of U 238 is twice that of Sn 119. 2. The nuclear mass density of U 238 is thrice that of Sn 119. The nuclear mass density of U 238 is the same as that of 3. 119 Sn. 4. The nuclear mass density of U 238 is half that of Sn 119. 15 A current is flowing through a conductor of non-uniform cross-section. The quantity which remains constant along the conductor is: 1. current density 2. drift velocity 3. current 4. electric field The coil is suddenly flipped in the magnetic field, i.e., it is rotated about one of its sides by 180. As a result, the total ∘ charge that flows through R is: BAN 2BAN 1. 2. R R BAN 3. 4. zero 2R Page: 2  NEET Level Test (21- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Apr-24) 8527521718 16 Two projectiles, A and B are projected from the same 18 Which of the following graphs depicts the variation of point on the ground with the same initial speed, as shown in electric potential, V with radial distance, r from the centre of the figure. The ratio of maximum height attained by the a positively charged conducting sphere of radius R? projectile A to that of projectile B is: 1. 2. 1. 3 : 1 3. 4. 2. 1 : 3 3. √3 : 1 4. √3 : 2 17 Two metallic rods (AB, CD) of identical dimensions are 19 100 g water at 20 C is mixed with 300 g water at 100 C ∘ ∘ connected in parallel, their ends being maintained at the same two temperatures: ends A, C → at T and ends B, D → at T. 1 2 in a calorimeter. The mixture is now mixed again with 400 g The thermal conductivities of the rods are K (rod AB) and 1 water at 10 C. The final temperature of the mixture, ∘ K (rod CD). If the two rods are replaced by a single rod of 2 assuming no loss of heat, is: the same dimension (as any one of them), and the net thermal 1. 16 C ∘ current remains unchanged, then the conductivity K of the 2. 30 C ∘ new rod will be given by: 3. 40 C ∘ 4. 45 C ∘ 20 A waveform propagating along the x-axis is given by; x mm) sin 2π[(300 s −1 y(x, t) = (2 )t − ] 1.5 m The wavenumber of this wave is (in SI): 1 1. 300 2. 300 1 3. 1.5 4. 1.5 21 A waveform propagating along the x-axis is given by; K1 +K2 1. K = 2. K = K1 + K2 y(x, t) = (2 mm) sin 2π[(300 s −1 )t − x ] 2 1.5 m 2 1 1 1 1 1 3. = + 4. = + The maximum speed of a particle as the wave travels is: K K K K K K 1 2 1 2 1. 450 m/s 2. 0.6 m/s 3. 1.2π m/s 4. 900π m/s Page: 3  NEET Level Test (21- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Apr-24) 8527521718 22 Charges are placed at the vertices of a square of side a 24 Given below are two statements: (as shown in the figure). The magnitude of each charge is If a mixture of ideal gases has specific molar q(q > 0).The electric field due to three charges at the centre Statement I: heat capacities C (at constant pressure) and p 1 C (at constant volume) then, C − C = R. of the square is: (k = ) v p v 4πε 0 Any mixture of ideal non-reacting gases will Statement II: obey the ideal gas law: pV = nRT. 1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct. 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. 4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect. 25 Four identical uniform discs, each of mass m and radius R, are glued together so that they lie symmetrically in a single plane. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through its centre, perpendicular to the plane of the kq 2kq discs, is: 1. 2 2. 2 a a 3kq √2kq 3. 2 4. a 2 a 23 Two 1 kg blocks are connected by a light inextensible string and the system is suspended by a spring of stiffness 1000 N/m. Take g = 10 m/s 2 1. 4mR 2 2. 6mR 2 3. 10mR 2 4. 18mR 2 26 A uniform ring of mass m rotates about one of its diameters so that the highest speed of any particle of the ring is v. The kinetic energy of the ring is: 1 1. 2 mv 2 1 2. 4 mv 2 If the string connecting the blocks is cut, the acceleration of 3. 1 mv 2 the upper block will be (immediately after the cut): 8 1 1. zero 4. 6 mv 2 2 2. 10 m/s upward 3. 5 m/s upward 2 2 4. 10 m/s downward Page: 4  NEET Level Test (21- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Apr-24) 8527521718 27 A 1500 kg automobile collides with a wall in a particular 31 A person with a mass of 80 kg is standing on the rim of a crash test. The automobile's initial velocity is v = 15 m/s, 1 circular platform with a mass of 200 kg and rotating about its and its final velocity in the opposite direction is v = 2.6 m/s. 2 axis at a speed of 5 revolutions per minute (rpm). As the If the collision lasts for 0.15 s, then the average force exerted person moves toward the centre of the platform, what will be on the automobile is: the platform's new rotational speed (in rpm) once the person reaches its centre? 1. 3 2. 6 3. 9 4. 12 32 Two particles move along the positive x -axis, starting from the origin. One (A) moves with a constant velocity while the other (B) moves with a constant acceleration, but no 1. 2.6 × 10 N 4 initial velocity. Then: 2. 2.25 × 10 N 4 1. A is always ahead of B. 3. 1.76 × 10 N 5 2. B is always ahead of A. 4. 3.9 × 10 N 3 3. A is initially ahead, but B overtakes it. A distant object, when viewed under normal adjustment, 4. B is initially it ahead, but A overtakes it. 28 using an astronomical telescope forms an image that is Two stones with masses and are whirled in magnified by 50. The eyepiece has a focal length of 2 cm. The 33 m 2m horizontal circles. The radius for the stone with mass 2m is r separation between the objective lens and the eyepiece is: 2 1. 98 cm 2. 102 cm and the radius for the stone with mass m is r. When both stones experience the same centripetal force, the tangential 3. 27 cm 4. none of the above speed of the lighter stone is n times that of the heavier stone. The value of n is: 29 If the temperature of a diode rises, the current through 1. 1 the diode (keeping voltage constant): 2. 2 1. increases. 3. 3 2. decreases. 4. 4 3. remains constant. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the ground 4. may increase or decrease depending on bias. 34 th state in the H -atom has the same value as that in the n state Consider the logic circuit shown in the adjacent figure, of an H e ion. The value of n equals: + 30 1. 4 with A, B as inputs and G as a selector for the overall 2. 2 behaviour. 3. 1 4. 3 35 An electric dipole consisting of two opposite charges of 2 × 10 C each, separated by a distance of 0.03 m, is placed −6 in an electric field of 2 × 10 N/C. The maximum torque on 5 the dipole is: 1. 12 × 10 N-m−1 2. 12 × 10 N-m−3 3. 24 × 10 N-m−1 If G is TRUE, then the output Y is: 4. 24 × 10 N-m−3 1. A 2. B ¯ ¯¯¯ 3. A 4. B ¯ ¯¯¯ Page: 5  NEET Level Test (21- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Apr-24) 8527521718 Physics - Section B 39 A particle at rest explodes into two fragments of masses m1 and m (m > m ) which move apart with non-zero 2 1 2 36 The left half of a parallel plate capacitor is filled with a velocities. If λ and λ are their de-Broglie wavelengths 1 2 respectively, then: dielectric of relative permittivity K while the right half is 1. λ > λ filled with air. The capacitor is charged by connecting its 1 2 2λ O2 > CO2 > CH4 of 90 m/s, and considering a measurement accuracy of ±4% in 2. CH4 > CO2 > Ar > O2 speed, what is the corresponding uncertainty in its position? 3. CH4 > CO2 > O2 > Ar 1. 2.46 × 10–33 m 4. Ar > CH4 > O2 > CO2 2. 1.46 × 10–33 m 3. 2.46 × 10–32 m 4. 1.46 × 10–31 m Page: 10  NEET Level Test (21- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Apr-24) 8527521718 75 Zinc dissolve in an excess of NaOH because of the 80 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as formation of: Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 1. ZnO Assertion (A): Pressure is an intensive property. 2. Zn(OH)2 Reason (R): Volume is an extensive property. 3. NaZn(OH)3 In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer 4. Na2ZnO2 from the options given below: Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct Which of the following cannot act as an oxidizing agent? 1. 76 explanation of (A). 1. S 2− Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 2. 2. Br 2 explanation of (A). 3. H SO − 4 3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 4. SO 2− 3 4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 77 81 The decreasing order of the acidic nature of Assertion (A): Hydrazine is a neutral ligand. H2 SO4 (I), H3 PO4 (II), and HClO4 (III) is: It has two N as donor atoms and behaves as a 1. I>II>III Reason (R): chelating ligand. 2. I>III>II 3. III>I>II Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 4. III>II>I 1. explanation of (A). 82 The number of sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds in the Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 2. following structure are: explanation of (A). 3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 78 A smuggler travelling from Dubai on a not-so-reputed 1. σ bonds -33 and π bonds -2 airline was found in possession of 19.7 kg of gold. How many 2. σ bonds -22 and π bonds -2 atoms of gold were recovered? (Atomic mass of gold (Au) is 3. σ bonds -42 and π bonds -2 197 u) 4. σ bonds -40 and π bonds -3 1. 6.02 × 1022 2. 6.02 × 1023 83 Of the following atoms/ions, which one contains the 3. 6.02 × 1024 greatest number of neutrons? 4. 6.02 × 1025 1. 60 28 Ni 2. 64 29 Cu + When 50.0 kg of nitrogen gas (N2) and 10.0 kg of 3. 64 Zn 4. 64 Zn 2+ 79 30 30 hydrogen gas (H2) are combined, what is the quantity of Given below are two statements: ammonia gas (NH3) produced? 84 1. 33.0 ×103 mol The 19th electron in the potassium atom Assertion (A): enters into the 4s-orbital, not into the 3d 2. 56.1×103 g orbital. 3. 6.5 ×103 g (n + l ) rule is followed for determining the 4. None of the above Reason (R): orbitals of the lowest energy state. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 1. explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 2. explanation of (A). 3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 4. Both (A) and (R) are False. Page: 11  NEET Level Test (21- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Apr-24) 8527521718 85 Which one of the following has a square planar 89 The major products A and B in the following reaction geometry? are: (At. Nos. Co = 27, Ni = 28, Fe = 26, Pt = 78) 1. [CoCl4]2– 2. [FeCl4]2– 3. [NiCl4]2– 4. [PtCl4]2– Chemistry - Section B 1. 86 Which of the following statements is (are) not true? Oxidation of glucose with bromine water gives glutamic 1. acid Hydrolysis of sucrose gives dextrorotatory glucose and 2. 2. laevorotatory fructose The two six-membered cyclic hemiacetal forms of D-(+)- 3. glucose are called anomers Monosaccharides cannot be hydrolysed to given poly- 4. 3. hydroxy aldehydes and ketones 87 What is the correct order of basic strength in aqueous 4. None of the above solution among the following compounds? 1. CH3 − NH2 What is the reaction between aqueous sodium hydroxide 2. CH3 − NH − CH3 90 3. CH3 − N(CH3)− CH3 and C6H5CH2Br? 4. NH3 1. S 1mechanism N 2. S 2 mechanism 1. 2 > 1 > 3 > 4 N 3. E1 2. 3 > 2 > 1> 4 4. E 2 3. 4 > 2 > 1> 3 4. 2 > 4 > 3 > 1 In a typical fuel cell, the reactants (R) and product (P) 91 88 are: 1. R = H , O2(g) ; P = H2 O2(g) Assertion 2(g) Boron always forms a covalent bond. 2. R = H 2(g) , O2(g) ; P = H2 O(ℓ) (A): 3+ 3. R = H 2(g) , O2(g) , Cl2(g) ; P = HClO4(aq) Reason (R): The small size of B favors the formation of 4. R = H , N2(g) ; P = NH3(aq) covalent bonds. 2(g) 92 Which of the following alcohols will react fastest with Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 1. HCl/ZnCl2? explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 2. explanation of (A). 3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 1. 2. 3. 4. Page: 12  NEET Level Test (21- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Apr-24) 8527521718 93 What is the correct order of acidity among the following? 98 Anticancer agent among the following is: 1. 2. 1. c>d>a>b 2. b>a>d>c 3. a>b>c>d 4. b>c>a>d 94 Identify the product in the following reaction: 3. 4. 99 Match Column I with Column II and mark the appropriate option : 1. 2. Column I Column II (Reagents) (​​Compounds) (A) Neutral F eCl 3 (P) 3. 4. What type of reaction is demonstrated by the process (B) Iodoform (Q) 95 involving a carboxylic acid, an alcohol, and an acid that results in the formation of esters? 1. Reversible slow process 2. Irreversible fast process 3. Cyclic process 4. Adiabatic process (C) Carbylamine test (R) 96 Which molecule is correctly matched with its shape as predicted by VSEPR theory? CuSO + Sodium potassium 4 (D) tartrate (S) 1. PCl3 Trigonal pyramidal (Rochelle’s salt) 2. OF2 Linear 3. CIF3 Trigonal planar 1. A(Q); B(R); C(P); D(S) 4. SF6 Hexagonal 2. A(P); B(R); C(Q); D(S) 3. A(Q); B(P); C(R); D(S) 97 What reagents are added to the test solution to detect 4. A(Q); B(P); C(S); D(Q) phosphate ions? 1. Concentrated H SO and ammonium molybdate solution 2 4 100 The disease caused by the deficiency of Vitamin B2 is: 2. Concentrated HCl and ammonium sulfate solution 1. Beri-Beri 3. Concentrated HNO and ammonium molybdate solution 3 2. Cheilosis 4. Concentrated H PO and ammonium chloride solution 3. Pernicious anaemia 3 4 4. Convulsions Page: 13  NEET Level Test (21- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Apr-24) 8527521718 Biology I - Section A 107 Which organism in a food chain in an ecosystem will be a secondary consumer? 101 The unethical or unlawful appropriation or commercial 1. a carnivore 2. a herbivore exploitation of biological materials (such as medicinal plant 3. a plant 4. a decomposer extracts) that are native to a particular country or territory without providing fair financial compensation to the people or 108 The F2 genotypic and phenotypic ratio are identical in: government of that country or territory is called: I. Incomplete dominance 1. Bioprospecting II. Co-dominance 2. Biopiracy 3. Biomagnification 1. Only I 4. Bio-informatics 2. Only II 3. Both I and II Which of the following statements captures the essence 4. Neither I nor II 102 of Gause's principle of competitive exclusion? Regarding the regions of the root tip: 109 "the more abundant species will exclude the less abundant 1. I. Root cap protects the tender apex of the root species through competition" "competition for the same resources excludes species Region of elongation is proximal to region of 2. II. having different life styles" meristematic activity "no two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely III. Region of maturation has root hairs 3. 1. Only I and II are correct when resources are limited" 2. Only I and III are correct "larger organisms exclude smaller ones through 3. Only II and III are correct 4. competition as in the case of large trees controlling 4. I, II and III are correct underbrush" 110 Identify the incorrect statement regarding fungi 103 A post-transcriptional genetic mechanism of eukaryotes belonging to Basidiomycetes: that suppresses gene expression and in which double-stranded 1. The mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic RNA cleaved into small fragments initiates the degradation of a complementary messenger RNA sequence is called: 2. Asexual spores are generally not found 1. CRISPR 2. Genetic Engineering 3. Sex organs are absent 3. Gene Splicing 4. RNA Interference 4. Basidiospores are exogenously produced on the basidium The discovery of which of the following plant growth 111 Type of plastids that have fat soluble carotenoid 104 regulators is associated with Bakanae disease? pigments, like carotene xanthophylls, are present in: 1. 2,4-D 1. Chromoplasts 2. Amyloplasts 2. GA 3. Aleuroplasts 4. Elaioplasts 3. IAA 4. ABA 105 Which of the following will be true for both bryophytes and pteridophytes? 1. They reproduce only asexually 2. They are vascular cryptogams 3. They have a dominant gametophyte 4. They require water for fertilisation 106 What is the number of net ATP molecules produced as a result of the breakdown of glucose in glycolysis and fermentation? 1. 38 ATP 2. 36 ATP 3. 2 ATP 4. NADH Page: 14  NEET Level Test (21- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Apr-24) 8527521718 112 The type of placentation shown in the given figure is 117 Match Scientists in Column I with their contribution in seen in: the field of virology given in Column II and select your answer from the codes given below: Column I Column II D. J. Recognized tobacco mosaic is caused by A a Ivanowsky microbes smaller than bacteria Demonstrated extract of infected tobacco M. W. B b plants could cause infection in healthy Beijerinck plants W. M. C c Showed that viruses could be crystallized Stanley 1. Marigold Codes: 2. Argemone A B C 3. Dianthus 1. a b c 4. China rose 2. a c b DNA does not contains: 3. b a c 113 4. c b a 1. Thiamine 2. Adenine 118 Long, ribbon-like pollen grains are characteristically 3. Cytosine 4. Guanine seen in some: 1. aquatic plants 114 Which plant growth regulator is critical in breaking seed 2. bird-pollinated grasses and bud dormancy in flowering plants? 3. gymnosperms 1. GA 4. wind-pollinated flowers 2. Cytokinin 119 In order to assimilate one CO molecule via 3. Ethylene 2 4. ABA photosynthesis, the green plants require: 1. 9 ATP and 6 NADPH molecules 115 Isogamous sexual reproduction by non-flagellated 2. 5 ATP and 3 NADPH molecules gametes is seen in which of the following alga: 3. 3 ATP and 2 NADPH molecules 1. Chlamydomanas 4. 18 ATP and 12 NADPH molecules 2. Volvox 120 During translation in living cells, every polypeptide 3. Spirogyra 4. Udorina chain formed starts with the amino acid: 1. lysine 2. serine 116 Which of the following will be true regarding arithmetic 3. methionine 4. alanine growth following mitotic cell division in plants? Only one daughter cell continues to divide while the other 121 In the life cycle of moss bryophytes, which stage bears 1. differentiates and matures the sex organs? Only one daughter cell continues to divide, while the other 1. Seta of the sporophyte 2. dies 2. Leafy stage Both daughter cell continue to divide and then one gets 3. Capsule of the sporophyte 3. differentiated and matures 4. Protonema stage Both daughter cell continue to divide and later both get 4. differentiated and mature Page: 15  NEET Level Test (21- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Apr-24) 8527521718 122 Which of the following is the primary role of oxygen in 128 Which of the following best explains a frequency of aerobic cellular respiration? recombination of 50% in a dihybrid test cross? 1. It combines with lactate, forming pyruvate. The two genes are likely to be located on different 1. It acts as an acceptor for electrons and hydrogen, forming chromosomes. 2. water. All of the offspring have combinations of traits that match 2. 3. It combines with carbon, forming CO. 2 one of the two parents. It yields energy in the form of ATP as it is passed down the 3. The genes are located on sex chromosomes. 4. respiratory chain. 4. Abnormal meiosis has occurred. 123 Which enzyme joins Okazaki fragments on the lagging 129 The lac repressor protein is able to bind to the operator strand during DNA replication? region of the lac operon when there is a/an: 1. DNA Polymerase II 1. absence of lactose 2. Topoisomerase 2. presence of lactose 3. DNA Ligase 3. presence of cAMP 4. Holoenzyme 4. absence of glucose 124 An enzyme isolated from which of the following 130 During the formation of a monosporic embryo sac in bacteria can be used to remove clots from blood vessels? angiosperms, the functional megaspore undergoes: 1. Bacillus thuringiensis 1. two mitotic divisions 2. Clostridium butylicum 2. two meiotic divisions 3. Streptococcus 3. three meiotic divisions 4. Lactobacillus 4. three mitotic divisions 125 Eukaryotic genes are split genes. A DNA sequence 131 "Biodiversity should be conserved as it plays a major within such a gene that is not expressed in the final RNA role in many ecosystem services that nature provides." This product is called: argument in favour of conserving biodiversity is: 1. Exons 1. ethical 2. Transposons 2. useless 3. Recons 3. narrowly utilitarian 4. Introns 4. broadly utilitarian 126 All the following are benefits of mycorrhizal association 132 Identify the correct statement regarding the stem to vascular plants except: morphology from the following: 1. Increasing its tolerance to drought I. Axillary buds may get modified into thorns as in gourds. 2. Enhancing its resistance to root pathogens II. Stem tendrils develop from axillary buds as in Citrus. 3. Enhancing its phosphorus uptake capacity 1. Only I 4. Biological nitrogen fixation 2. Only II 3. Both I and II 127 What are chromatophores in prokaryotic cells? 4. Neither I nor II 1. Lipopolysaccharide layer of gram negative bacteria 133 Which of the following parameters will best enable an 2. Colored pigments in fluorescent bacteria Carbon concentrating compartments in photosynthetic ecologist to predict future growth rate in a population? 3. 1. life expectancy bacteria Membrane-bound vesicles containing photosynthetic 2. age structure 4. 3. mortality pigments 4. undeveloped land Page: 16  NEET Level Test (21- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Apr-24) 8527521718 134 Which of the following level of structural organisation 139 What will be the ploidy of the endosperm in an in proteins describes the sequence of amino acids in a angiosperm produced as a result of a cross between a polypeptide? tetraploid female plant and a diploid male plant? 1. primary structure 1. Triploid 2. secondary structure 2. Tetraploid 3. tertiary structure 3. Pentaploid 4. quaternary structure 4. Hexaploid 135 Which meristem is responsible for the regeneration of 140 Products of the Krebs cycle include: parts of grasses removed by the grazing herbivores? I. carbon dioxide 1. Apical meristem II. NADH 2. Intercalary meristem III. FADH2 3. Interfascicular cambium 4. Fascicular vascular cambium 1. I and II 2. I and III 3. II and III Biology I - Section B 4. I, II and III 136 Consider the given two statements: 141 Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and Transformation is the genetic alteration of a cell resulting select your answer from the codes given below: from the direct uptake and incorporation of exogenous Column I Column II I: genetic material from its surroundings through the cell A. Diatoms a. Protein rich layer pellicle membrane(s). B. Dinoflagellates b. Chief producers in oceans Transformation is one of three processes that lead to C. Euglenoids c. Spores with true walls II: horizontal gene transfer, in which exogenous genetic material passes from one bacterium to another. Two flagella, one transverse and one D. Slime moulds d. longitudinal 1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct 3. Both I and II are correct Codes: 4. Both I and II are incorrect A B C D 1. b a c d 137 The number of features seen in a dicotyledonous stem 2. b d a c from among the features given below is: 3. b c a d I. Sclerenchymatous pericycle 4. b a d c II. Casparian strips in endodermis are very common III. Collechymatous hypodermis 142 Consider the given statements: IV. Conjoint open vascular bundles with exarch protoxylem Penicillin was the first antibiotic discovered by Alexander I. 1. 4 Fleming while working on Staph bacteria. 2. 3 Ernst Chain and Howard Florey developed a method to 3. 2 II. produce stable penicillin. 4. 1 1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct 138 Which of the following will be true for C4 plants but not 3. Both I and II are correct for C3 plants? 4. Both I and II are incorrect Initially fix carbon dioxide in mesophyll cells as 4-carbon I. long compounds. II. Calvin cycle takes place in mesophyll cells 1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct 3. Both I and II are correct 4. Both I and II are incorrect Page: 17  NEET Level Test (21- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Apr-24) 8527521718 143 Consider the give statements: 147 How many of the given statements regarding leaves of I. Wine and beer are produced without distillation. angiosperms are true? II. Whiskey, brandy and rum are produced by distillation. Leaves originate from shoot apical meristems and are I. Toddy is a traditional alcoholic beverage from South arranged in a basipetal order III. II. Pulvinus is seen in some leguminous plants India produced by fermenting palm tree sap. 1. Only I and II are correct III. Parallel venation is characteristic of most dicots 2. Only II and III are correct A bud is present in the axil of petiole of both simple and IV. 3. Only I and III are correct compound leaves 4. I, II and III are correct V. Palmately compound leaves are seen in neem 1. 5 144 A pea plant is heterozygous for flower colour, seed 2. 4 shape and seed colour. It is crossed with a plant homozygous 3. 3 dominant for seed color and seed shape but recessive for 4. 2 flower colour. What percentage of the progenies will be hetegozygous for all the traits? 148 Cycas does not have: 1. About 20% I. Coralloid roots 2. 12.5% 3. About 30% II. Branched stems 4. 47.5% III. Pinnate persistent leaves IV. Male cones and megasporophylls borne on same plant 145 Identify the alphabets that respectively represent the 1. I and II only endosperm, scutellum, plumule, coleorrhiza and aleurone 2. I and IV only layer in the diagram of monocotyledonous seed given below: 3. II and IV only 4. I and III only 149 In micropropagation, the choice of meristem as explant becomes critical if one wants to obtain: 1. Biofortified plants 2. Virus free plants 3. Drought resistant plants 4. Androgenic haploids 150 How many of the given functions can be performed by RNA? A: Messenger 1. B, D, F, H and C B: Structural role 2. C, B, G, H and A C: Adaptor molecule 3. B, C, H, E and A D: Catalytic role 4. B, C, E, G and C E: Genetic material in some viruses 1. 2 146 What would have been the number of possible codons if 2. 3 the universal genetic code were a four letter code instead of 3. 4 being a three letter code? 4. 5 1. 64 2. 128 3. 216 Biology II - Section A 4. 256 The primary cause driving extinction of species in 151 contemporary times is: 1. Habitat loss and fragmentation 2. Alien invasions 3. Over-exploitation 4. Co-extinction Page: 18  NEET Level Test (21- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Apr-24) 8527521718 152 Which statement is true regarding mitochondria? 156 Consider the given two statements: 1. They are the site of glycolysis. Ammonia is considered to be a less toxic 2. They contain their own DNA and ribosomes. Assertion (A): excretory product compared to urea and uric 3. They are involved in the synthesis of fatty acids. acid. 4. They are the primary site of protein synthesis. Ammonia requires a large amount of water Reason (R): for its elimination due to its high solubility 153 During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the and toxic nature. membrane potential changes in a specific pattern. Which of the following correctly describes the sequence of events in the 1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A). generation of an action potential? Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not correctly The membrane potential remains constant, indicating a 2. 1. explain (A). steady state of ion exchange across the neuron membrane. 3. (A) is True, (R) is False. Sodium ions rapidly enter the neuron, causing the 4. (A) is False, (R) is True. membrane potential to become more negative, followed by 2. the exit of potassium ions which restores the membrane to 157 Which of the following statements about In Vitro its resting potential. Potassium ions rapidly exit the neuron, leading to Fertilization (IVF) is correct? 3. hyperpolarization first, followed by sodium ions entering IVF involves the direct transfer of the embryo into the 1. the neuron to return to the resting potential. uterus without the need for fertilization in a lab. Sodium ions rapidly enter the neuron, making the inside The fertilization of the egg occurs inside the female body, more positive (depolarization), followed by potassium ions 2. and the embryo is then transferred to the laboratory for 4. further development. exiting the neuron, which restores the membrane to its resting potential (repolarization). IVF is a process where the egg and sperm are fertilized 3. outside the body, and the zygote or early-stage embryo is 154 Which of the following statement(s) about pulmonary then transferred to the uterus. and systemic circulation is/are correct? Only eggs are collected from the mother and fertilized with Pulmonary circulation transports oxygen-rich blood from 4. donor sperm in a laboratory setting; the zygotes are not A: the heart to the rest of the body, while systemic circulation transferred back to the original mother's uterus. brings oxygen-poor blood back to the heart. 158 What was the conclusion of the Meselson and Stahl Pulmonary circulation carries oxygen-poor blood from the heart to the lungs and returns oxygen-rich blood back to experiment regarding DNA replication? B: the heart, while systemic circulation moves oxygen-rich 1. DNA replication is conservative. blood from the heart to the body and returns oxygen-poor 2. DNA replication is dispersive. blood to the heart. 3. DNA replication is semiconservative. 1. Only A 4. DNA does not replicate; it is inherited as is. 2. Only B 3. Both A and B 159 Which of the following statements accurately describes 4. Neither A nor B the male reproductive system of a frog? 1. The testes produce eggs and are attached to kidneys. 155 Identify the incorrect statement: The male frog has a pair of testes which are connected to 1. A cnidoblast is seen in Cnidaria 2. the ventral side of the kidneys by a structure called 2. Bioluminescence is well developed in some Ctenophores mesorchium. Protonephridia are excretory and osmoregulatory structures The testes produce spermatozoa, and the reproductive 3. 3. in flatworms process is facilitated by a pair of seminal vesicles. 4. Nematodes have a true coelom The vasa efferentia transport urine from the kidneys to the 4. urinary bladder. Page: 19  NEET Level Test (21- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Apr-24) 8527521718 160 Which of the following statements correctly describes 165 According to the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, which an event that occurs during mitosis? condition is not required for a population to remain at genetic During prophase, the nuclear envelope reforms around the equilibrium? 1. 1. Random mating must occur. separated chromosomes. In metaphase, chromosomes align at the cell's equatorial 2. The population must be infinitely large. 2. 3. Migration must occur frequently with other populations. plane, attached to spindle fibers from opposite poles. 4. There should be no selection for any of the genotypes. Telophase is characterized by the replication of DNA in 3. preparation for cell division. What is the purpose of using agarose gel electrophoresis Anaphase involves the breakdown of the nuclear 166 4. membrane, allowing chromosomes to move freely in the in biotechnology processes? cytoplasm. 1. To replicate DNA fragments rapidly. To cut DNA into smaller fragments using restriction 2. 161 Which of the following is not a component of a enzymes. nucleotide? 3. To separate DNA fragments based on their size. 1. Phosphate group 4. To join fragments of DNA from different sources. 2. Ribose sugar 3. Fatty acid 167 How do oral contraceptive pills primarily prevent 4. Nitrogenous base pregnancy? Which of the following statements accurately reflects a 1. They prevent the implantation of the embryo in the uterus. 162 They inhibit gonadotropins and thus causes gonads to concept of Darwinism? 2. regress in size. Variation among individuals of a species is due to use and They inhibit ovulation by suppressing the secretion of FSH 1. 3. disuse of organs. and LH from the anterior pituitary. Inheritance of acquired characteristics is the basis of 4. They suppress the motility of sperms. 2. evolution. Natural selection is the mechanism by which the fittest Which of the following pairs is not an example of 3. individuals survive and reproduce, passing on their traits to 168 the next generation. analogous organs? All species on Earth are unchanging and have remained so 1. The wings of a bat and the wings of a butterfly. 4. 2. The forelimbs of humans and the forelimbs of whales. since their creation. 3. The flippers of penguins and the flippers of dolphins. 163 Which of the following statements about white blood 4. The thorns of a rose and the spines of a cactus. cells (leukocytes) is NOT correct? 169 Which of the following is correct regarding mode of Neutrophils are the most abundant type of white blood 1. cells in most mammals and form an essential part of the transmission for diseases? innate immune system. 1. Diseases cannot be transmitted through water. Lymphocytes are involved in the creation of antibodies, Airborne transmission is exclusive to non-infectious 2. 2. which are crucial for the adaptive immune response. diseases. Monocytes mature into macrophages and dendritic cells, Vector-borne transmission involves the spread of diseases 3. which can engulf and destroy pathogens through 3. by organisms such as mosquitoes and ticks. phagocytosis. Direct contact is not a significant mode of transmission for Eosinophils are primarily responsible for the body's 4. infectious diseases. 4. response to parasitic infections and are the predominant white blood cell type in human blood The adrenal cortex produces several hormones crucial 170 Which of the following functions is associated with the for homeostasis. Which of the following hormones is NOT 164 secreted by the adrenal cortex? Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER)? 1. Cortisol 1. Synthesis of steroid hormones 2. Aldosterone 2. Detoxification of drugs and poisons 3. Adrenaline 3. Synthesis of proteins destined for secretion 4. Androgens 4. Storage of calcium ions Page: 20  NEET Level Test (21- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Apr-24) 8527521718 171 Match the terms related to muscle contraction in 174 Which of the following best describes the significance Column A with their descriptions or associated terms in of meiosis in organisms? Column B: Meiosis results in the production of identical daughter 1. cells, ensuring genetic consistency across cell generations. Column A Column B The process of meiosis is essential for asexual Blocks the active sites on actin filaments in 2. reproduction, allowing organisms to quickly populate an A Myosin P a relaxed muscle environment. Binds to troponin, causing the troponin to Meiosis leads to the formation of gametes with half the B Actin Q change shape and move tropomyosin away 3. original number of chromosomes, contributing to genetic from the active sites variation in sexually reproducing populations. Thin filaments that slide past myosin Through meiosis, organisms can repair damaged DNA C Tropomyosin R 4. during muscle contraction segments, enhancing the cell's survival rate. Calcium Thick filaments that pull on actin filaments D S Which of the following mechanisms is primarily Ions to shorten the muscle 175 responsible for the concentration of urine in the kidney? Codes: The active transport of glucose and amino acids out of the A B C D 1. filtrate in the proximal convoluted tubule increases the 1. S R P Q filtrate's concentration. 2. S R Q P The passive reabsorption of sodium ions in the descending 2. 3. P Q R S limb of the loop of Henle concentrates the urine. 4. P Q S R The active reabsorption of ions in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, followed by the reabsorption of water 3. Which of the following best describes the correlation in the collecting ducts in response to antidiuretic hormone 172 (ADH), concentrates the urine. between heart sounds and events of the cardiac cycle? The filtration of blood under high pressure in the The first heart sound (S1), also known as "lub," is 4. glomerulus results in a concentrated urine filtrate from the 1. produced by the closing of the semilunar valves at the beginning. beginning of systole. The second heart sound (S2), also known as "dub," is What is the primary mode of transmission for HIV, the 2. produced by the closing of the atrioventricular valves at the 176 end of systole. virus that causes AIDS? 1. Through contaminated food and water. The first heart sound (S1), also known as "lub," is 2. By airborne pathogens. 3. produced by the closing of the atrioventricular valves at the 3. Through direct contact with open wounds. beginning of systole. 4. Sexual contact and sharing needles/syringes. The second heart sound (S2), also known as "dub," is 4. produced by the reopening of the atrioventricular valves at Which level of protein structure is characterized by the the beginning of diastole. 177 sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain? Identify the correct statement: 1. Primary structure 173 2. Secondary structure 1. Fallopian tubes are lined with brush-bordered epithelium. 3. Tertiary structure Proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron is lined by 4. Quaternary structure 2. ciliated epithelium. 178 Which part of the frog's brain is responsible for 3. Areolar tissue is a dense, regular connective tissue. 4. Skin has dense irregular connective tissue. maintaining balance and posture? 1. Cerebrum 2. Cerebellum 3. Medulla oblongata 4. Olfactory lobes Page: 21  NEET Level Test (21- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Apr-24) 8527521718 179 Which of the following best describes the specificity of 184 What is the primary function of the nucleolus found the genetic code? within the nucleus? The genetic code is universal; codons specify the same 1. It is the site of ribosome assembly. 1. amino acids in all organisms. 2. It serves as the storage area for DNA. The genetic code varies significantly among different 3. It is responsible for the synthesis of lipids. 2. organisms. 4. It plays a role in cell division. 3. Each amino acid is specified by only one codon. The genetic code is ambiguous, with one codon coding for 185 Which of the following statements about oogenesis in 4. multiple amino acids. humans is incorrect? What is the process of spermiogenesis in human Oogenesis begins before birth with the formation of 180 1. primary oocytes during fetal development. reproduction? A secondary oocyte is released during ovulation, and 1. The division of spermatogonia to produce spermatocytes. 2. meiosis II is completed after fertilization. 2. The transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa. All primary oocytes continue meiosis I during puberty, 3. 3. The production of testosterone by Leydig cells. resulting in the formation of secondary oocytes. The process by which primary spermatocytes divide The first meiotic division is begun prior to birth, resulting 4. meiotically to form secondary spermatocytes. 4. in the formation of primary oocytes that remain arrested in prophase I until puberty. 181 Which of the following is not a function of thyroid hormones? Biology II - Section B 1. Regulation of metabolic rate 2. Promotion of calcium absorption in the intestines Consider the given two statements: 186 3. Stimulation of protein synthesis 4. Increase in oxygen consumption and energy expenditure In competitive enzyme inhibition, the inhibitor binds to the active site of the Assertion (A): enzyme, preventing the substrate from 182 Which group of animals belong to the same phylum? binding. 1. Portuguese men-of-war, sea anemone, and brain coral. Competitive inhibitors structurally resemble 2. Tapeworm, roundworm, and hookworm. the substrate, allowing them to bind 3. Pearl oyster, devil fish, and flying fish. Reason (R): reversibly to the active site and reduce the 4. Sea urchin, sea cucumber, and sea pen. enzyme's activity without affecting the maximal velocity (Vmax) of the reaction. 183 Match the types of synovial joints listed in Column A with their corresponding examples in Column B: 1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not correctly 2. Column A Column B explain (A) A Hinge Joint P Thumb Joint 3. (A) is True, (R) is False Ball and Socket 4. (A) is False, (R) is True B Q Elbow Joint 187 Which of the following statements about bacterial Neck (between the first and second C Pivot Joint R cervical vertebrae) translation is correct? D Saddle Joint S Hip The ribosome binds to the 5' cap structure of the mRNA to 1. initiate translation. Codes: In bacteria, translation begins with the amino acid 2. A B C D methionine, always encoded by the start codon AUG. 1. Q S P R Bacterial mRNAs have poly-A tails that signal the end of 3. 2. Q S R P translation. 3. S Q P R Eukaryotic and bacterial ribosomes are identical and 4. function in the same manner. 4. S Q R P Page: 22  NEET Level Test (21- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Apr-24) 8527521718 188 Consider the given two statements: 192 Consider the given two statements: All living organisms are made up of cells, and In eukaryotes, transcription involves the Statement I: it is the basic structural and functional unit of Assertion (A): formation of a pre-mRNA which is then life. processed to form mature mRNA. Cells can only arise from pre-existing cells The processing includes splicing out introns, Statement II: through the process of binary fission. Reason (R): addition of a 5' cap, and a poly-A tail to the pre-mRNA. 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true. 2. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false. 1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A). 3. Statement I is false, but Statement II is true. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not correctly 2. 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false explain (A). 3. (A) is True, (R) is False. 189 Consider the given two statements: 4. (A) is False, (R) is True. The primary drive for breathing at rest is the Consider the given two statements: Statement I: concentration of oxygen in the blood rather 193 than the concentration of carbon dioxide. The iodine test for starch is positive when the Carbon dioxide and hydrogen ion Assertion(A): sample turns blue-black upon addition of Statement II: concentration have no effect on central iodine solution. chemoreceptors in the brain. Iodine molecules slip into the coil of the Reason(R): starch molecule, causing a color change due 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct to the interaction between starch and iodine. 2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect 3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct 1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A) 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not correctly 2. explain (A) Consider the given two statements: 3. (A) is True, (R) is False 190 4. (A) is False, (R) is False The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is Assertion(A): characterized by the secretion of What is the role of Variable Number Tandem Repeats progesterone. 194 Progesterone is essential for the maintenance (VNTRs) in genetic studies? Reason(R): of the endometrium and preparation for They are used to identify active s