Which of the following is the first step in management for a 48-year-old woman presenting to the Emergency Department with heavy vaginal bleeding, slight dizziness, Hb of 10, and a... Which of the following is the first step in management for a 48-year-old woman presenting to the Emergency Department with heavy vaginal bleeding, slight dizziness, Hb of 10, and a negative pregnancy test? A. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents B. Medroxyprogesterone C. Conjugated estrogen D. Blood transfusion

Understand the Problem

The question is asking about the initial management step for a 48-year-old woman presenting with heavy vaginal bleeding, dizziness, and low hemoglobin levels, ruling out pregnancy. We need to consider the immediate priority in stabilizing the patient given the clinical picture and lab results.

Answer

The first step is likely conjugated estrogen to address the acute bleeding after stabilizing the patient.

The first step is to stabilize the patient. Given the information, the next step would likely involve conjugated estrogen to address the acute bleeding.

Answer for screen readers

The first step is to stabilize the patient. Given the information, the next step would likely involve conjugated estrogen to address the acute bleeding.

More Information

In a 48-year-old woman with heavy vaginal bleeding, slight dizziness, a hemoglobin of 10, and a negative pregnancy test, the initial management focuses on stopping the acute bleeding and stabilizing her condition. Conjugated estrogen is often used in the emergency department to rapidly control acute uterine bleeding. While NSAIDs and medroxyprogesterone might be used later in the management of abnormal uterine bleeding, they are not the first-line agents in an emergency situation. Blood transfusion is considered if the patient is hemodynamically unstable or the anemia is severe.

Tips

It's a common mistake to jump to long-term solutions without addressing the acute problem of heavy bleeding. Stabilizing the patient is always the priority.

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