Heart Arrhythmias: Tachycardia & Bradycardia

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Questions and Answers

¿Cuál es el mecanismo más común de las taquiarritmias?

  • Bloqueo completo del nodo AV
  • Automatismo anormal
  • Fenómeno de reentrada (correct)
  • Disminución de la excitabilidad

¿Cuál de las siguientes características es típica de la fibrilación auricular?

  • FC regular de 100-150 lpm
  • Presencia de ondas en 'dientes de sierra'
  • Ondas P bien definidas en el ECG
  • Ritmo auricular desorganizado con múltiples circuitos de reentrada (correct)

¿Cuál de los siguientes factores NO es un desencadenante de taquicardia sinusal?

  • Bradicardia extrema (correct)
  • Fiebre
  • Hipertiroidismo
  • Ansiedad

¿Qué estructura del corazón actúa como marcapasos principal en condiciones normales?

<p>Nodo sinoauricular (SA) (B)</p>
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¿Cuál de las siguientes arritmias se asocia con el síndrome de Wolff-Parkinson-White?

<p>Taquicardia supraventricular paroxística (C)</p>
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¿Cuál de las siguientes características es propia del aleteo auricular tipo I?

<p>Ondas en 'dientes de sierra' en el ECG (A)</p>
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¿Cuál de las siguientes taquiarritmias tiene un alto riesgo de muerte súbita y requiere desfibrilación inmediata?

<p>Fibrilación ventricular (A)</p>
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¿Qué tratamiento es más adecuado para una taquicardia supraventricular paroxística en un paciente estable?

<p>Maniobras vagales y adenosina (B)</p>
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¿Cuál es una complicación importante de la fibrilación auricular?

<p>Tromboembolismo e ictus (A)</p>
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¿Qué caracteriza a la taquicardia ventricular sostenida?

<p>Duración mayor de 30 segundos (B)</p>
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¿Cuál es la definición de una bradiarritmia?

<p>Frecuencia cardíaca menor a 60 lpm (D)</p>
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¿Cuál de las siguientes es una causa frecuente de bradicardia sinusal?

<p>Uso de beta bloqueadores (D)</p>
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En el ECG, el bloqueo AV de primer grado se caracteriza por:

<p>Intervalo PR prolongado sin impedir la conducción (D)</p>
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¿Cuál de los siguientes bloqueos AV es más grave y requiere marcapasos con mayor frecuencia?

<p>Bloqueo AV de tercer grado (B)</p>
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¿Qué patrón en el ECG es característico del bloqueo de rama derecha?

<p>Patrón rSR' en V1-V2 (D)</p>
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El hemibloqueo anterior izquierdo se asocia con:

<p>Desviación del eje a la izquierda (D)</p>
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¿Cuál de las siguientes afirmaciones es correcta sobre el bloqueo trifascicular?A) No tiene riesgo de progresión a bloqueo completo

<p>Es una combinación de BRD, HBAI/HBPI y BAV de primer grado (D)</p>
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¿Cuál de las siguientes arritmias hereditarias puede causar muerte súbita debido a taquicardia ventricular?

<p>Síndrome de Brugada (C)</p>
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¿Qué característica en el ECG sugiere la presencia del síndrome de QT largo?

<p>Intervalo QT prolongado (A)</p>
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¿Cuál de las siguientes situaciones puede precipitar una crisis en el síndrome de QT largo?

<p>Estrés emocional o ejercicio (C)</p>
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¿Cuál de los siguientes fármacos pertenece a la clase I de los antiarrítmicos y prolonga la duración del potencial de acción?

<p>Quinidina (C)</p>
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¿Cuál de los siguientes antiarrítmicos tiene un alto riesgo de inducir fibrosis pulmonar?

<p>Amiodarona (D)</p>
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¿Cuál de las siguientes afirmaciones sobre los bloqueadores beta-adrenérgicos (clase II) es correcta?

<p>Disminuyen la estimulación simpática del corazón (A)</p>
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¿Qué efecto adverso es característico del uso de procainamida?

<p>Síndrome similar a lupus (A)</p>
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¿Cuál de los siguientes fármacos es un bloqueador de canales de calcio (Clase IV)?

<p>Verapamilo (A)</p>
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¿Qué antiarrítmico es usado con frecuencia en emergencias debido a su vida media corta?

<p>Esmolol (A)</p>
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¿Qué fármaco se utiliza para tratar la taquicardia supraventricular paroxística debido a su capacidad de inducir un bloqueo AV transitorio?

<p>Adenosina (C)</p>
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¿Qué antiarrítmico es contraindicado en pacientes con insuficiencia cardíaca debido a su efecto inotrópico negativo?

<p>Dronedarona (D)</p>
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¿Cuál de los siguientes fármacos es útil para tratar arritmias inducidas por hipopotasemia o intoxicación digitálica?

<p>Magnesio (D)</p>
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¿Qué antiarrítmico bloquea la corriente If en el nodo SA y se utiliza para la taquicardia sinusal inapropiada?

<p>Ivabradina (A)</p>
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¿Cuál es el valor mínimo para definir hipertensión arterial según las guías actuales?

<p>≥130/80 mmHg (B)</p>
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¿Cuál de los siguientes enunciados es correcto sobre la hipertensión primaria?

<p>Es la forma más frecuente de hipertensión. (D)</p>
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¿Cuál de las siguientes NO es una causa común de hipertensión secundaria?

<p>Insuficiencia hepática (A)</p>
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¿Cuál de los siguientes es un factor de riesgo modificable para la hipertensión?

<p>Consumo excesivo de sal (B)</p>
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¿Cuál de los siguientes órganos puede verse afectado por la hipertensión arterial a largo plazo?

<p>Riñones (B)</p>
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¿Qué alteración en el corazón es común en pacientes con hipertensión arterial crónica?

<p>Hipertrofia ventricular izquierda (D)</p>
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¿Cuál de los siguientes valores de presión arterial indica una urgencia hipertensiva?

<p>180/120 mmHg (D)</p>
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¿Cuál es el tratamiento de primera línea para la hipertensión primaria?

<p>Modificación del estilo de vida (D)</p>
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¿Cuál de los siguientes medicamentos es un inhibidor de la enzima convertidora de angiotensina (IECA)?

<p>Enalapril (D)</p>
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¿Qué órgano sufre retinopatía hipertensiva como complicación de la hipertensión no controlada?

<p>Ojo (D)</p>
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¿Cuáles son las características de la hipertensión crónica en el embarazo?

<p>Presión elevada antes del embarazo o antes de la semana 20 de gestación, con o sin proteinuria.</p>
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¿Cuándo se considera que una embarazada tiene hipertensión gestacional?

<p>Cuando la presión arterial se eleva después de las 20 semanas de gestación, sin proteinuria ni manifestaciones clínicas.</p>
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¿Cuáles son los valores de presión arterial en la preeclampsia NO severa?

<p>PAS ≥ 140 mmHg y PAD ≥ 90 mmHg, con proteinuria de 300 mg/24 h.</p>
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¿Cuáles son los signos de gravedad en la preeclampsia severa?

<p>PAS ≥ 160 mmHg, PAD ≥ 100 mmHg, afectación de órgano blanco y riesgo de edema pulmonar, infarto, ACV, SIRA y coagulopatías.</p>
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¿Cuáles son los principales objetivos en el manejo de la enfermedad renal crónica?

<p>Evitar factores agravantes, retrasar la progresión, tratar complicaciones como la anemia y ajustar fármacos según la función renal.</p>
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¿Cuáles son los principales sitios anatómicos donde actúan los antihipertensivos?

<p>Corazón, riñón, vasos sanguíneos y cerebro (D)</p>
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¿Cómo funcionan los diuréticos para reducir la presión arterial?

<p>Promueven la excreción de sodio y agua, reduciendo el volumen sanguíneo (D)</p>
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¿Qué papel juega la renina en la regulación de la presión arterial?

<p>Activa la conversión de angiotensinógeno en angiotensina I (C)</p>
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¿Cuál es el mecanismo de acción de los inhibidores de la enzima convertidora de angiotensina (IECA)?

<p>Inhiben la conversión de angiotensina I en angiotensina II (B)</p>
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¿Qué ventajas tienen los antagonistas del receptor de angiotensina II (ARA II) sobre los IECA?

<p>No causan tos seca (C)</p>
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¿Por qué los IECA están contraindicados en el embarazo?

<p>Pueden causar daño renal en el feto (A)</p>
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Flashcards

Re-entry Phenomenon

Common mechanism involving a circular path of electrical activation.

Atrial Fibrillation ECG

Disorganized electrical activity in the atria with multiple re-entrant circuits.

Normal Pacemaker

The sinoatrial (SA) node.

Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome

A narrow-QRS tachycardia involving abnormal conduction pathways.

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Atrial Flutter

Sawtooth pattern of atrial activity

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Ventricular Fibrillation

High risk arrhythmia needing immediate defibrillation.

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Stable SVT Treatment.

Vagal maneuvers and adenosine.

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Atrial Fibrillation Risk

Thromboembolism and stroke.

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Sustained Ventricular Tachycardia.

Duration longer than 30 seconds.

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Bradyarrhythmia Definition

Heart rate less than 60 bpm.

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Sinus Bradycardia Cause

Beta-blockers.

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First-Degree AV Block ECG

Prolonged PR interval.

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Most Severe AV Block

Third-degree AV block.

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Right Bundle Branch Block ECG

rSR' pattern in V1-V2.

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Left Anterior Hemiblock ECG

Left axis deviation.

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Trifascicular Block

Combination of RBBB, LAHB/LPHB, and 1st-degree AV block.

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Hereditary Arrhythmia Risk

Brugada syndrome.

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Long QT Syndrome ECG

Prolonged QT interval.

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Long QT Syndrome Trigger

Emotional stress or exercise.

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Class III Antiarrhythmic

Amiodarone.

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Decreases heart stimulation.

Beta-adrenergic blockers.

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Procainamide Adverse Effect

Lupus-like syndrome.

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Calcium Channel Blocker Antiarrhythmic

Verapamil.

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Short-Acting Antiarrhythmic

Esmolol.

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SVT treatment.

Adenosine.

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Study Notes

Taquiarrythmias

  • Re-entry is the most common mechanism for tachyarrhythmias.
  • Atrial fibrillation has a disorganized atrial rhythm with multiple re-entry circuits.
  • Extreme bradycardia is not a trigger for sinus tachycardia.
  • The sinoatrial (SA) node acts as the primary pacemaker of the heart in normal conditions.
  • Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is associated with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.
  • Atrial flutter type I is characterized by "sawtooth" waves on the ECG.
  • Ventricular fibrillation increases the risk of sudden death and requires immediate defibrillation.
  • Vagal maneuvers and adenosine are appropriate treatments for paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia in a stable patient.
  • Thromboembolism and stroke are important complications of atrial fibrillation.
  • Sustained ventricular tachycardia is characterized by a duration longer than 30 seconds.

Bradyarrhythmias

  • Bradyarrhythmia is defined as a heart rate slower than 60 bpm.
  • Beta-blocker use is a frequent cause of sinus bradycardia.
  • First-degree AV block on an ECG shows a prolonged PR interval without impeding conduction.
  • Third-degree AV block is the most severe type of AV block and frequently requires a pacemaker.
  • A characteristic ECG pattern of right bundle branch block is rSR' in V1-V2.
  • Left anterior hemiblock is associated with left axis deviation.
  • Trifascicular block is a combination of RBBB, LAHB/LPHB, and first-degree AV block.
  • Brugada syndrome is a hereditary arrhythmia that can cause sudden death due to ventricular tachycardia.
  • A prolonged QT interval on an ECG suggests long QT syndrome.
  • Emotional stress or exercise can precipitate a crisis in long QT syndrome.

Antiarrhythmic Drugs

  • Quinidine is a Class I antiarrhythmic that prolongs the action potential duration.
  • Amiodarone carries a high risk of inducing pulmonary fibrosis.
  • Beta-adrenergic blockers (Class II) reduce sympathetic stimulation of the heart.
  • Procainamide use can lead to a lupus-like syndrome.
  • Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker (Class IV).
  • Esmolol, due to its short half-life, is frequently used in emergencies.
  • Adenosine is used to treat paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia because of its ability to induce transient AV block.
  • Dronedarone is contraindicated in patients with heart failure due to its negative inotropic effect.
  • Magnesium is useful for treating arrhythmias induced by hypokalemia or digitalis toxicity.
  • Ivabradine blocks the If current in the SA node and treats inappropriate sinus tachycardia.

Hypertension

  • The minimum value to define arterial hypertension, according to current guidelines, is ≥130/80 mmHg.
  • Primary hypertension is the most common form of hypertension.
  • Hepatic insufficiency is not a common cause of secondary hypertension.
  • Excessive salt consumption is a modifiable risk factor for hypertension.
  • The kidneys can be affected by long-term arterial hypertension.
  • Left ventricular hypertrophy is common in patients with chronic arterial hypertension.
  • Arterial pressure values of 180/120 mmHg indicate a hypertensive emergency.
  • Lifestyle modification is the first-line treatment for primary hypertension.
  • Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor.
  • The eye suffers hypertensive retinopathy as a complication of uncontrolled hypertension.

Hypertension in Specific Cases

  • Chronic hypertension in pregnancy is characterized by elevated blood pressure before pregnancy or before the 20th week of gestation, with or without proteinuria.
  • Gestational hypertension is considered when blood pressure elevates after the 20th week of gestation, without proteinuria or clinical signs.
  • Non-severe preeclampsia is defined by BP ≥ 140 mmHg systolic and ≥ 90 mmHg diastolic, with proteinuria of 300 mg/24 h.
  • Severe preeclampsia signs include BP ≥ 160 mmHg systolic, ≥ 100 mmHg diastolic, with end-organ damage and risks like pulmonary edema, infarction, stroke, ARDS, and coagulopathies.
  • The key factor in preeclampsia's pathogenesis is placental dysfunction, releasing toxic mediators that affect maternal blood vessels.
  • Eclampsia's main clinical manifestations are tonic-clonic seizures, hyperreflexia, headache, and visual disturbances.
  • Aging-related factors increasing blood pressure include arterial stiffness, reduced baroreceptor sensitivity, decreased renal flow, and increased peripheral vascular resistance.
  • Women develop coronary artery disease later than men due to the protective effect of estrogen on the cardiovascular system.
  • Chronic kidney disease affects between 10% and 15% of the world's population.
  • Markers of kidney damage must persist for more than 3 months to diagnose chronic kidney disease.
  • The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) indicates chronic kidney disease if it's under 60 ml/min/1.73 m².
  • A healthy adult eliminates less than 150 mg of protein and less than 30 mg of albumin in urine per day.
  • Target blood pressure in patients with chronic kidney disease without proteinuria is 140/90 mmHg.
  • Target blood pressure in patients with chronic kidney disease with proteinuria is 130/80 mmHg.
  • Management objectives for chronic kidney disease include avoiding exacerbating factors, slowing progression, treating complications like anemia, and adjusting medications based on renal function.

Antihypertensives

  • The main anatomical sites where antihypertensives act are the heart, kidney, blood vessels, and brain.
  • Diuretics reduce blood pressure by promoting sodium and water excretion, reducing blood volume.
  • Renin activates the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
  • ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
  • Angiotensin II receptor antagonists (ARBs) do not cause a dry cough, unlike ACE inhibitors.
  • ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy because they can cause kidney damage to the fetus.
  • Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers act more on blood vessels, while non-dihydropyridines affect the heart more.
  • Common adverse effects of direct vasodilators like hydralazine and minoxidil include reflex hypotension, tachycardia, and fluid retention.
  • Sodium nitroprusside requires strict monitoring due to the risk of cyanide toxicity.
  • When administering fenoldopam to patients with glaucoma, adjust the dose, as it can increase intraocular pressure.

Mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers (CCB)

  • CCBs inhibit Ca2+ flow through L-type channels, causing smooth muscle relaxation & reduced peripheral resistance.
  • A characteristic adverse effect of dihydropyridines is reflex tachycardia and peripheral edema.
  • Verapamil and diltiazem have an antiarrhythmic effect as calcium channel blockers.
  • Methyldopa is used to treat hypertension during pregnancy.
  • An important adverse effect of sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors is an increased risk of genital mycotic infections.
  • Furosemide can cause Ototoxicity.
  • Thiazide diuretics are used for nephrolithiasis due to idiopathic hypercalciuria.
  • Hyperkalemia is a characteristic adverse effect of potassium-sparing diuretics.
  • Spironolactone, aldosterone antagonist cause gynecomastia as adverse effect.
  • Mannitol is osmotic diuretic.

Atherosclerosis and Thrombi

  • Atherosclerosis involves the formation of plaques in the arteries due to the accumulation of lipids and inflammatory cells.
  • Age is a non-modifiable risk factor for atherosclerosis.
  • LDL cholesterol contributes to atherosclerosis by transporting cholesterol to peripheral tissues and promoting plaque formation in the arteries.
  • Hypertension increases mechanical stress on the arterial wall, fostering plaque formation.
  • Smoking damages the vascular endothelium and encourages inflammation.
  • Hypercholesterolemia increases the risk of diabetes and favors atherosclerosis
  • C-reactive protein (CRP) is an inflammatory marker linked to atherosclerosis.
  • Vulnerable atherosclerotic plaques have a thin fibrous cap and a higher risk of rupture.
  • When an atherosclerotic plaque ruptures, it can trigger the activation of blood coagulation, leading to a heart attack or stroke.
  • A thrombus that blocks an artery is the primary consequence when an atherosclerotic plaque ruptures.

Dyslipidemia

  • The primary function of LDL is to transport cholesterol to the tissues.
  • A high LDL level increases the risk of developing clogged arteries.
  • Statins are the first-line treatment for dyslipidemia.
  • Statins Lower cholesterol by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase.
  • A common adverse effect of statins is myopathy and the risk of rhabdomyolysis.
  • Fibrates are most commonly used to reduce triglycerides.
  • Niacin reduces LDL synthesis and increases HDL levels.
  • Ionic exchange resins reduce cholesterol absorption.
  • Ezetimibe reduces the amount of cholesterol absorbed in the intestine.
  • The main therapeutic use for PCSK9 inhibitors is for the treatment of familial hypercholesterolemia.
  • Anticoagulants mainly inhibit the coagulation cascade.
  • Heparin functions mainly through inhibiting factor Xa and thrombin via antithrombin.

Anticoagulants

  • Unfractionated heparin's therapeutic activity is monitored using the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
  • Rivaroxaban is a direct factor Xa inhibitor.
  • Heparin use has a common adverse effect of Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT).
  • Fondaparinux is an anticoagulant administered subcutaneously once daily for treating venous thromboembolism.
  • A major risk of warfarin use is major bleeding.
  • Rivaroxaban does not require INR monitoring.
  • Direct thrombin inhibitors like Dabigatran block the active site of thrombin.
  • Bivalirudin is commonly used in cardiac procedures and is administered intravenously.
  • Antiplatelet agents are intended to prevent blood clots by preventing platelet aggregation.
  • Aspirin (Acetylsalicylic Acid - AAS) inhibits COX-1.

Antiplatelet Agents

  • An adverse effect of aspirin is gastrointestinal bleeding risk
  • Ticlopidine is a medicine used in brain procedures & based to ADP P2Y12
  • Clopidogrel action mechanism has a blockade to the ADP P2Y receptors
  • Abciximab is mainly used to block GP IIb/IIIa & has a anti thromboses effect mostly
  • Cilostazol is a vasodilator with use with aspririn used against brain ischemia
  • Cilostazol blocks phosphodiesterase and improves circulation with claudication
  • Streptokinase promotes indirectly plasminogen, in thrombosis or pulmanory emobolism
  • Alteplasa (t-PA recombinante) use is for severe IAM miocardium attacks.

Heart Failure

  • Coronary artery disease is a common cause of heart failure.
  • In stage B heart failure, structural heart disease is present without symptoms of heart failure.
  • Reduced myocardial contractility primarily contributes to systolic dysfunction in heart failure.
  • Left ventricular dysfunction is associated with pulmonary congestion and reduced cardiac output.
  • Ineffective compensatory mechanisms found in heart failure , but not the Frank-Starling mechanism.
  • Fluid overload and increased pressure are common to be seen in Congestive heart failiure.
  • The main respiratory symptom of is acute pulmanory edemas.
  • Natriuretic peptides are elevated diagnostic in heart failure.
  • High-output failure can happen from severe anemia.
  • Atrial fibrillation is the most frequent arrythmia with heart falliures.
  • Heart failiure drugs use for cardiac arrest the action is on a positive inotropic drugs.
  • Digoxin in severe heart arrest action, the main action its caused by inhibitors Na+ / K+ ATPase, with calcium increasing.
  • Gynecomastia is a rare side efect that causes the digoxin drug.
  • Acute heart failure often needs the Levosimendan.
  • Spironolactone (aldosterone antagonist) often used in heart failure.
  • IECAs benifits for heart failiure are to lower periphical or aftercharge resistence.

Heart Failure Classes

  • Heart Failiure classes mainly inatopic are in case of heart sistolic failiure.
  • Hidralazina drug reduce pre and aftercharge in heart arrest & vasodilation.
  • Betablockers effects on heart arrest, helps to reduce Cardiac Frecuency / remodelling.
  • Valsartan combined with Sucabrilo uses is mostly when less Ejecttion.
  • The aneurisms main effect can see all layers of the Arteria & its True (Verdadero).
  • Risk factos of aortic anyeurisms are High arterial Pressures, Smokes & deficiency of Vitamine C.
  • DIssections its due to Gentical connectios issues, or High arterial Pressures.
  • The age to have desiction problems is 40~60 Years.
  • The chests & intense pain is the Desicttion main sytomps
  • The main diagnostic for aneurysm is TAC scanner or ecocardio transmural.
  • Anyerisma Complications its by breakage or ruputres.

Cardiomyopathies & Valve Conditions

  • Anyerasm genetically conditions are due to Marfan Sindrome
  • Cardiac dessecion & aneurisms uses TAC / ecocardio transofagica
  • ichemec conditions the coronaries problems cause Descendent Ant. & Izq
  • The Noo way to solve those damages are mostly by smoking / high blood pressures.
  • BioMarker helps to diagnosers the myocardial is to analyse theTroponinas
  • Infarcts due to myocardium caused due to Transmoral transmural
  • Angins Variant / Prinzmetal its presented with coronaries spasm usually.
  • Angina that doesnt respond to vasodialters but infects the microcirculating is cause by Síndrome X
  • The main miocardium effect its due to Arteriosclerosis
  • Most common symptoms during an heart failure its high chest pains.
  • Pericarditis is connected with dilations of ventriculous.
  • High tropminas distinguish a higher segmet compared with lesser in the ST during heart failliures.

Drugs / treatments

  • Nitriglicerina Its mainly action mechanisim its by releasing an NOx to dilate the vasculation system.
  • Ranolazina drugs is mainly helps with hygh pressures problems.
  • Calcium blocker drugs does effects in most heart patients but can cause high pressures / edeams.
  • labradina drugs is mainly for angina stabilies & to lower the frequencys.
  • Beta Blockers are mainl contraindicates for Asthma.
  • Ranalozine helps to with high blood pressure & the calcium overload.
  • The drugs with 6~8hr action helps to make profilaxis the heart stabilising action.
  • High headaches and most common for nitrate drug effects.
  • Sildefanil is to not have hypotension effect
  • Caused by sarcomere protein with mutations & caused by genetics . Heart high pressure is common.
  • Genetics mutations problems with Heart & protient C problems cause a heart faliure.
  • The cause of young athelties heart arrrests its due ventriculous A

I hope these notes are helpful for your studies!

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