Biochemistry of PKU and Galactosemia
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Questions and Answers

In phenylketonuria (PKU), what biochemical conversion is impaired?

  • Tyrosine to phenylalanine
  • Phenylalanine to tyrosine (correct)
  • Tetrahydrobiopterin to phenylalanine
  • Melanin to tyrosine

The characteristic musty odor in infants with PKU is due to what?

  • Excessive melanin production
  • Build-up of tetrahydrobiopterin
  • Shunt pathway intermediates (correct)
  • Accumulation of tyrosine

What causes the lighter hair and skin color observed in individuals with PKU?

  • Excessive tyrosine production
  • Increased production of tetrahydrobiopterin
  • Deficiency of melanin due to limited tyrosine (correct)
  • Lack of phenylalanine in the diet

What is the therapeutic aim of using phenylalanine ammonia lyase (PAL) in PKU?

<p>To provide an alternative pathway for phenylalanine breakdown (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT) in galactose metabolism?

<p>Converts galactose to glucose (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In galactosemia, what compound accumulates and causes water absorption in the lens leading to cataracts?

<p>Galactitol (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is not a typical symptom seen in early-onset galactosemia?

<p>Decreased melanin production (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The accumulation of galactose and galactose-1-phosphate in the kidney of a patient with galactosemia can cause what?

<p>Impaired amino acid transport (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the central dogma of molecular biology, which sequence accurately describes the flow of genetic information?

<p>DNA → RNA → Protein (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of a codon?

<p>To specify a particular amino acid (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which of the following situations is genetic information transmitted to daughter cells?

<p>Both during mitosis in somatic cells and meiosis in germ cells (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term describes the observable characteristics of an individual, influenced by both genotype and environment?

<p>Phenotype (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the general term for a permanent alteration in the nucleotide sequence of DNA?

<p>Mutation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of mutation involves loss or gain of an entire chromosome?

<p>Genome mutation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a 'silent mutation'?

<p>A mutation that has no effect on the amino acid sequence (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a type of gene mutation resulting from a single base pair change?

<p>Point mutation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a mating of two phenotypically normal heterozygotes for an autosomal recessive disorder, what is the chance that their child will be affected?

<p>25% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic typically associated with autosomal recessive disorders, distinguishing them from autosomal dominant disorders?

<p>Uniform expression of the trait (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The primary mechanism involved in autosomal recessive disorders is typically a:

<p>Loss of function mutation leading to a decrease in protein expression (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the inheritance pattern of X-linked recessive disorders in females?

<p>Female carriers may show partial expression due to random X-chromosome inactivation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many sons of an affected mother will inherit an X-linked dominant disease?

<p>Half of the sons (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a male is affected by an X-linked dominant disorder, what will be the inheritance pattern in his offspring?

<p>The disease will be passed on to all his daughters but not his sons (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the overall result of a mutation in a single-gene disorder?

<p>May lead to formation of abnormal protein, reduction in protein expression or both. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which category of mechanisms is implicated when mutations lead to abnormal membrane receptors or transport issues in single-gene disorders?

<p>Defects in membrane receptors and transport systems (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of Gaucher disease?

<p>Mutation in the gene encoding glucocerebrosidase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a typical manifestation of Type 1 Gaucher disease?

<p>Central nervous system (CNS) involvement (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key difference between Type 2 and Type 3 Gaucher disease?

<p>Type 2 has more severe and earlier onset of neurological symptoms compared to Type 3 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of macrophages in the pathogenesis of Gaucher disease?

<p>They accumulate glucocerebrosides due to impaired degradation and become activated. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of glucocerebrosidase in healthy individuals?

<p>Degrading glycolipids derived from senescent blood cell breakdown (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes enzyme replacement therapy for Gaucher disease?

<p>Lifelong infusion of recombinant glucocerebrosidase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant risk for patients with Gaucher disease?

<p>A 20-fold higher risk of developing Parkinson disease (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of Mucopolysaccharidoses (MPSs)?

<p>Defective degradation of mucopolysaccharides and their storage in tissues (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical characteristic is most commonly associated with the initial presentation of acute arthritis?

<p>Sudden onset of severe pain in a single joint. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Approximately how long does it take for chronic tophaceous gout to typically develop after the initial acute arthritis attack, in the absence of appropriate therapy?

<p>Around 12 years (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is a key characteristic of multifactorial inheritance?

<p>The disorder is determined by the combined effect of multiple genes and environmental factors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In multifactorial inheritance, what is the recurrence risk in first-degree relatives of an affected individual?

<p>Approximately 2% to 7% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of G banding in cytogenetics?

<p>To allow the specific identification of each individual chromosome. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly describes a karyotype?

<p>A standard arrangement of chromosomes paired by size and stained. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best defines the term 'polyploid'?

<p>A numeric abnormality where cells have multiple sets of the haploid chromosome number. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cytogenetic disorders can result from what kind of abnormalities?

<p>Both numeric and structural changes in chromosomes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of Leber hereditary optic neuropathy?

<p>Progressive loss of central vision (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is genomic imprinting?

<p>Differential inactivation of specific genes depending on their parental origin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Maternal imprinting results in what?

<p>Transcriptional silencing of the maternal allele (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a typical characteristic of Prader-Willi syndrome?

<p>Short stature (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What genetic alteration is typically associated with Prader-Willi syndrome?

<p>Deletion of a region on paternally derived chromosome 15 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a distinctive symptom of Angelman syndrome?

<p>Inappropriate laughter (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which gene, when deleted from the maternal chromosome, is associated with Angelman syndrome?

<p>UBE3A (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of imprinting for Prader-Willi syndrome, a set of genes at 15q12 that are silenced are located on which chromosome?

<p>Maternal chromosome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

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Flashcards

Central Dogma

The central dogma describes the flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA to protein. DNA's sequence dictates the RNA sequence, which then determines the protein's amino acid sequence.

What's a Codon?

A codon is a three-nucleotide sequence within mRNA that specifies a particular amino acid during protein synthesis.

Hereditary Disorder

Hereditary disorders are caused by gene mutations inherited from parents.

Congenital Disorder

Congenital disorders are present at birth, meaning they were present from the moment of conception.

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Genotype

Genotype refers to an individual's complete set of genes, their genetic makeup.

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Phenotype

Phenotype is the observable characteristics of an individual, shaped by both their genotype and environmental influences.

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What's an Allele?

An allele is a specific variant of a gene. Each gene can have multiple alleles.

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Mutation

Mutations are permanent changes in the DNA sequence. They can arise spontaneously or be induced by mutagens.

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Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

In autosomal recessive disorders, individuals must inherit two copies of the mutated gene, one from each parent, to express the trait.

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Complete Penetrance

The complete expression of a trait in all individuals carrying the mutated gene.

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Early Onset

The condition where symptoms of an autosomal recessive disorder appear at a young age.

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Loss of Function Mutation

A mutation that leads to a decreased amount of a functional protein product.

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X-Linked Disorders

All sex-linked disorders are linked to the X chromosome.

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Random X-Chromosome Inactivation

Because females have two X chromosomes, a random inactivation of one X chromosome can occur, resulting in varying levels of expression of the gene.

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X-Linked Dominant Disorders

These disorders are much rarer than autosomal mutations and are generally dominant.

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Genetic Defect in Protein Production

A genetic defect can lead to the production of a faulty protein or a reduction in the amount of functional protein.

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Phenylketonuria (PKU)

An inborn error of metabolism caused by a deficiency in the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase, leading to an inability to convert phenylalanine into tyrosine.

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Musty odor in PKU

When phenylalanine metabolism is blocked due to PKU, alternative pathways lead to the production of byproducts that are excreted in urine and sweat, giving a musty or mousy odor.

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Light hair and skin in PKU

The lack of tyrosine, a precursor of melanin, in PKU leads to light hair and skin color.

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Galactosemia

An autosomal recessive disorder where the body is unable to properly break down galactose, a sugar found in milk.

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GALT deficiency in galactosemia

The enzyme galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT) is crucial for converting galactose to glucose. In galactosemia, deficiency of this enzyme leads to accumulation of galactose and its metabolites.

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Tissue accumulation in galactosemia

The buildup of galactose and its metabolites in tissues like the liver, lens, kidney, and cerebral cortex causes various health problems.

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Symptoms of Galactosemia

Infants with galactosemia often experience vomiting and diarrhea within days of consuming milk, leading to failure to thrive. Jaundice and hepatomegaly are common symptoms.

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Aminoaciduria in galactosemia

The accumulation of galactose and galactose-1-phosphate in the kidney disrupts amino acid transport, resulting in increased amino acids in urine.

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Gaucher Disease

A genetic disorder where the body can't properly break down glucocerebrosides, leading to their buildup in cells, particularly macrophages.

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Type 1 Gaucher Disease

A type of Gaucher disease that is the most common, marked by bone problems, enlarged liver and spleen but no nervous system involvement.

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Types 2 and 3 Gaucher Disease

Gaucher disease types with nervous system symptoms. Type 2 is severe and appears in infancy, while type 3 develops later and is milder.

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Mucopolysaccharidoses (MPSs)

A buildup of mucopolysaccharides in various tissues due to faulty degradation.

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Mucopolysaccharides

Complex sugars found in the extracellular matrix, contributing to connective tissue structure.

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Macrophages

Cells involved in both the immune response and waste disposal, found in various tissues.

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Gaucher Cells

Large cells characteristic of Gaucher disease, filled with glucocerebrosides.

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Neuronopathic Form

A rare condition involving the breakdown of brain cells, leading to mental deterioration.

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What is acute arthritis?

A type of arthritis that starts suddenly with intense joint pain, redness, and warmth. Most first attacks affect only one joint, often the big toe.

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What is an asymptomatic intercritical period?

The period between acute gout attacks when symptoms disappear. Without treatment, these attacks become more frequent and affect multiple joints.

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What is Calcium Pyrophosphate Crystal Deposition Disease (Pseudogout)?

A type of arthritis caused by the build-up of calcium pyrophosphate crystals in joints. It's often called "pseudogout" because its symptoms mimic gout.

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What is a multifactorial trait?

A trait influenced by multiple genes, each with a small effect, plus environmental factors.

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How does inheritance impact multifactorial disorders?

The risk of developing a multifactorial disorder depends on the number of faulty genes inherited.

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What is the recurrence risk for multifactorial disorders?

The chance of a family member getting a multifactorial disorder is similar for parents, siblings, and offspring.

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How do identical twins differ from nonidentical twins in multifactorial inheritance?

It's less likely that both identical twins will get a multifactorial disorder compared to nonidentical twins, but the chance is still higher.

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What is cytogenetics?

The study of chromosomes, often involving arranging them in order by size.

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Genomic Imprinting

A process where certain genes are silenced differently during the formation of sperm and eggs.

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Maternal Imprinting

The inactivation of a gene inherited from the mother.

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Paternal Imprinting

The inactivation of a gene inherited from the father.

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Prader-Willi Syndrome

A syndrome where the individual has an interstitial deletion in the long arm of the paternally derived chromosome 15.

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Prader-Willi Syndrome Symptoms

Mental retardation, short stature, hypotonia, obesity, small hands and feet, and hypogonadism.

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Angelman Syndrome

A syndrome where the individual has an interstitial deletion in the long arm of the maternally derived chromosome 15.

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Angelman Syndrome Symptoms

Mental retardation, ataxic gait, seizures, and inappropriate laughter.

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How Prader-Willi Syndrome Develops

A set of genes on the maternal chromosome at 15q12 is imprinted (and hence silenced), so the paternal chromosome provides the only functional alleles. When these are lost as a result of a deletion (in the paternal chromosome), the patient develops Prader-Willi syndrome.

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Study Notes

Introduction to Genetic Diseases

  • Genetic disorders are far more common than appreciated
  • Lifetime frequency is estimated at 670/1000
  • 50% of spontaneous abortions are due to chromosomal abnormalities in early gestation
  • Approximately 1% of newborns have a gross chromosomal abnormality

Genetic Information Storage

  • Genetic information is stored in DNA
  • The typical normal human cell contains 46 chromosomes (23 pairs): 22 homologous pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes (XX or XY)
  • Members of a chromosome pair carry matching genetic information, though they can have slightly different forms (alleles)
  • Each chromosome is composed of a long DNA molecule bound to histones and proteins
  • A DNA molecule is composed of two long complementary chains of deoxyribonucleotides.

DNA Structure

  • Two DNA strands twist around each other to form a double helix
  • Each deoxyribonucleotide comprises a nitrogenous base (adenine, guanine, cytosine, or thymine) bound to deoxyribose and phosphate

DNA Functions

  • Provides genetic information for protein synthesis
  • Transmits genetic information to daughter cells and offspring

Genes, Codons, and Proteins

  • The portion of DNA required for protein production is called a gene
  • Gene transcription is regulated by promoter or enhancer regions
  • Three consecutive nucleotides form a codon, each specifying a single amino acid
  • The sequence of amino acids in a protein is determined by the sequence of codons in mRNA, which is determined by the sequence of nucleotides in DNA

Transmission of Genetic Information

  • Genetic information is transmitted to daughter cells during mitosis (somatic cells) and meiosis (germ cells)

Terminology

  • Hereditary disorders: disorders inherited from parents
  • Congenital disorders: present at birth
  • Genotype: genetic constitution (genome)
  • Phenotype: expressed characteristics

Mutations

  • Permanent change in the DNA's primary nucleotide sequence
  • Can occur spontaneously during cell division or environmentally by mutagens (radiation, viruses, chemicals)
  • Mutations in germ cells cause hereditary diseases
  • Three categories of mutation:
  • Genome mutations: loss or gain of a whole chromosome; often incompatible with survival
  • Chromosomal mutations: rearrangement of genetic material within a chromosome; usually incompatible with survival; exemplified by translocations
  • Gene mutations: single base mutations (more common); or they may affect a large portion of a gene; cause most hereditary diseases; types include point mutations (single base changes), deletions/insertions, and expansion of repeat sequences (trinucleotide repeats)

Point Mutations

  • Single base substitutions
  • Types include:
  • Silent mutations: no change in amino acid sequence
  • Missense mutations: change in one amino acid
  • Nonsense mutations: change to a stop codon, terminating protein synthesis;

Deletions/Insertions (Gene Mutations)

  • Can occur within coding or non-coding sequences
  • Deletions or insertions of 1 or 2 bases lead to frameshift mutations, altering the reading frame of the genetic code
  • Deletions or insertions of 3 or multiples of 3 bases do not cause frameshifts but can result in abnormal protein missing one or more amino acids

Expansion of Repeat Sequences (Gene Mutations)

  • Show amplification or expansion of a sequence of 3 nucleotides
  • Normally repeated 20-30 times
  • Trinucleotide repeat mutation is when the sequence expands to more than 100 repeats
  • Mechanism leading to the increase in repeats and how this leads to disease is poorly understood; examples are Huntington's disease and fragile X syndrome

Categories of Genetic Disease

  • Mendelian disorders: single-gene defects; follow known Mendelian inheritance patterns
  • Chromosomal disorders: abnormalities in chromosome structure or number
  • Multifactorial disorders: caused by multiple genes and environmental factors
  • Diseases with non-classic inheritance patterns: atypical inheritance

Autosomal Dominant Disorders

  • Manifested in the heterozygous state
  • 50% chance of inheriting the abnormal allele from an affected parent
  • Can show reduced penetrance, with inherited mutant gene but no phenotype
  • Commonly show variable expressivity
  • Pathogenesis: often loss-of-function mutations (reduced regulatory protein amount), or gain-of-function mutations (toxic mutant protein)
  • Many show delayed onset and symptoms first appear in adulthood

Autosomal Recessive Disorders

  • Phenotype usually only observed in the homozygous state
  • Affected siblings often have normal parents
  • The chance of each pregnancy resulting in a homozygous affected child = 25% (parents heterozygous)

X-Linked Disorders (Recessive)

  • Located on the X chromosome
  • Generally recessive, but rarely dominant
  • In heterozygous females, random X-inactivation may lead to partial expression of the trait
  • Affected males cannot transmit the disease to their sons.

Biochemical Basis of Single-Gene Disorders

  • Genetic defects can lead to formation of abnormal proteins or reduced gene product output
  • Phenotypic effects can be direct (abnormalities in encoded protein) or indirect (interactions of the mutant protein with other normal proteins)

Mechanisms in Single-Gene Disorders

  • Enzyme defects and consequences (accumulated substrate)
  • Defects in membrane receptors and transport systems
  • Alterations in the structure, function, or quantity of non-enzyme proteins

Enzyme Defects and Consequences

  • Mutation can result in defective or reduced enzyme synthesis, leading to a metabolic block
  • Three major consequences:
  • Accumulation of the substrate
  • Decreased production of the end product needed
  • Failure to inactivate a tissue damaging substrate

Defects in Receptors and Transport Systems

  • Examples: Familial hypercholesterolemia (defects in LDL receptor function); Cystic fibrosis (defects in chloride ion transport)

Alterations in Structure, Function, or Quantity of Nonenzyme Proteins

  • Examples: Hemoglobinopathies (sickle cell disease, thalassemia); osteogenesis imperfecta; muscular dystrophies; Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS)

Disorders Associated with Defects in Structural Proteins

  • Marfan syndrome: autosomal dominant; affects fibrillin-1; leads to skeletal, ocular, and cardiovascular abnormalities
  • Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS): defects in collagen synthesis or structure; various types resulting in variable clinical presentations such as hyperextensibility of joints.

Diseases Associated with Mutations in Receptor Proteins or Channels

  • Familial hypercholesterolemia: impaired LDL receptor function; elevated cholesterol

Disorders Associated with Defects in Enzymes

  • Phenylketonuria (PKU): autosomal recessive; deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH); causes elevated phenylalanine and lack of tyrosine leading to intellectual disability and other problems
  • Galactosemia: autosomal recessive; deficiency of galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT); causes accumulation of galactose and galactose-1 phosphate; severe outcomes in the absence of treatment

Lysosomal Storage Diseases

  • Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes; breakdown complex substrates to soluble products
  • Inherited lack of an enzyme results in storage of partially degraded metabolites within lysosomes
  • Examples: Tay-Sachs disease; Niemann-Pick disease types A, B, and C; Gaucher disease

Tay-Sachs Disease

  • Deficiency of hexosaminidase A
  • GM2 ganglioside accumulates in nervous system causing damage
  • Symptoms develop in infancy and are progressive, often leading to death

Niemann-Pick Disease

  • Deficiency of acid sphingomyelinase results in varying degrees of illness
  • Sphingomyelin accumulation in cells
  • Type A: severe, with rapid deterioration in infancy
  • Type B: less severe, with organomegaly but no neurological problems
  • Type C: distinctive; involves lipid transport defects; cholesterol accumulation

Gaucher Disease

  • Deficiency of glucocerebrosidase
  • Glucocerebroside accumulates in macrophages; leading to hepatosplenomegaly, bone problems
  • Three clinical variants (type 1, 2, 3); clinical features vary based on the type and severity or the loss of function

Mucopolysaccharidoses (MPS)

  • Defective degradation of mucopolysaccharides (part of the extracellular matrix)
  • Accumulation within various tissues, including the heart valves and subendothelial arterial deposits
  • Various clinical variants characterized by specific enzyme deficiencies and varying degrees of severity

Glycogen Storage Diseases (Glycogenoses)

  • Inherited deficiencies of enzymes involved in glycogen synthesis or degradation cause glycogen accumulation in tissues.
  • Types with different tissue localization.
  • Varying degrees of severity and presentation

Crystal-Induced Arthritis

  • Endogenous crystals can trigger arthritis (urate, calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate, and basic calcium phosphate)
  • Gout (urate crystals); Pseudogout (calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate crystals)

Gout

  • Marked by transient attacks of acute arthritis, initiated by urate crystals deposited within and around joints
  • Hyperuricemia (high blood uric acid) is a necessary but not sufficient factor for causing gout
  • Results from reduced excretion, or in a smaller percentage of cases from overproduction of uric acid

Other Diseases

  • Many other pediatric diseases have genetic origins
  • Prenatal developmental errors can cause structural defects

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Description

This quiz explores the biochemical mechanisms behind phenylketonuria (PKU) and galactosemia, including enzyme roles and metabolic pathways. Test your understanding of the symptoms, causes, and therapeutic approaches related to these metabolic disorders.

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